{"abstract_algebra": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about abstract algebra.\n\nQ: Statement 1 | Every element of a group generates a cyclic subgroup of the group. Statement 2 | The symmetric group S_10 has 10 elements.\n(A) True, True (B) False, False (C) True, False (D) False, True\nA: Let's think step by step. A cyclic group is a group that is generated by a single element. Hence a subgroup generated by a single element of a group is cyclic and Statement 1 is True. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: The symmetric group $S_n$ has $\nactorial{n}$ elements, hence it is not true that $S_{10}$ has 10 elements.\nFind the characteristic of the ring 2Z.\n(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 12 (D) 30\nA: Let's think step by step. A characteristic of a ring is R is $n$ if the statement $ka = 0$ for all $a\\in 2Z$ implies that $k$ is a multiple of $n$. Assume that $ka = 0$ for all $a\\in 2Z$ for some $k$. In particular $2k = 0$. Hence $k=0$ and $n=0$. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Statement 1| Every function from a finite set onto itself must be one to one. Statement 2 | Every subgroup of an abelian group is abelian.\n(A) True, True (B) False, False (C) True, False (D) False, True\nA: Let's think step by step. Statement 1 is true. Let $S$ be a finite set. If $f:S \nightarrow S$ is a onto function, then $|S| = |f(S)|$. If $f$ was not one to one, then for finite domain $S$ the image would have less than $S$ elements, a contradiction.\nStatement 2 is true. Let $G$ be an abelian group and $H$ be a subgroup of $G$. We need to show that $H$ is abelian. Let $a,b \\in H$. Then $a,b \\in G$ and $ab=ba$. Since $G$ is abelian, $ab=ba$. Since $H$ is a subgroup of $G$, $ab \\in H$. Therefore, $ab=ba$ and $H$ is abelian. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Statement 1 | If aH is an element of a factor group, then |aH| divides |a|. Statement 2 | If H and K are subgroups of G then HK is a subgroup of G.\n(A) True, True (B) False, False (C) True, False (D) False, True\nA: Let's think step by step. Statement 2 is false. Let $H$ be a subgroup of $S_3$ generated by the cycle $(1,2)$ and $K$ be a subgroup of $S_3$ generated by the cycle $(1,3)$. Both $H$ and $K$ have two elements, the generators and the identity. However $HK$ contains cycles (1,2), (1,3) and (2,3,1), but the inverse of (2,3,1) is (2,1,3) and it does not belong to HK, hence HK is not a subgroup. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Find all c in Z_3 such that Z_3[x]/(x^2 + c) is a field.\n(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3\nA: Let's think step by step. Z_3[x]/(x^2 + c) is a field if and only if x^2 + c does not have roots in Z_3. That is x^2 + c != 0 for every x in Z_3. If c = 0, then x^2 + c = x^2 has root 0. If c = 1 then x^2 + c = x^2 + 1 = 0 + 1 for x = 0, 1 + 1 = 2 for x = 1 and 1 + 1 = 2 for x = 2, hence x^2 + 1 does not have any roots. For c = 2 the polynomial x^2 + 2 has two roots at x = 1 and x = 2. Hence Z_3[x]/(x^2 + c) is a field if and only if c = 1. The answer is (B).", "anatomy": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about anatomy.\n\nQ: Which of the following is the body cavity that contains the pituitary gland?\n(A) Abdominal (B) Cranial (C) Pleural (D) Spinal\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on anatomy for help. Let\u2019s solve this problem step by step. The pituitary gland is the major endocrine gland attached to the base of the brain, and it is contained in the Cranial cavity. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Which of these branches of the trigeminal nerve contain somatic motor processes?\n(A) The supraorbital nerve (B) The infraorbital nerve (C) The mental nerve (D) None of the above\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on anatomy for help. Let\u2019s solve this problem step by step. \nWe know the following: (A) The supraorbital nerve (also known as the frontal nerve) is the largest branch of the ophthalmic nerve and branch of ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. (B) The infraorbital nerve is a branch of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve. (C) The mental nerve is a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. Because all these nerves are purely sensory nerves and do not contain any somatic motor processes. Therefore, the answer should be none of the above, which is (D). The answer is (D).\n\nQ: In Angle's Class II Div 2 occlusion there is\n(A) excess overbite of the upper lateral incisors. (B) negative overjet of the upper central incisors. (C) excess overjet of the upper lateral incisors. (D) excess overjet of the upper central incisors.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on anatomy for help. Let\u2019s solve this problem step by step. This is a question related to anatomy and orthodontics. Excess overjet is associated with Class II occlusions; therefore, we can safely eliminate (B) from the list, as negative overjet is often associated with Class III occlusions. Now, we need to determine the location of the excess overjet, and that would be the upper (maxillary) lateral incisors. Only (C) has the correct information. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: The pleura\n(A) have no sensory innervation. (B) are separated by a 2 mm space. (C) extend into the neck. (D) are composed of respiratory epithelium.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on anatomy for help. Let\u2019s solve this problem step by step. First, recall that the pleura refers to the thin layer of tissue that covers the lungs and lines the interior wall of the chest cavity. Now, let\u2019s look at each option:\nOption (A): \u201cThe pleura have no sensory innervation.\u201d This information is not correct. The pleura do have a sensory innervation.\nOption (B): \u201cThe pleura are separated by a 2 mm space.\u201d This information is not correct. There is a very thin \u201cpotential\u201d space between the layers of the pleura; however, it is typically filled with serous pleural fluid. \nOption (C): \u201cThe pleura extend into the neck.\u201d This information is actuakky true. The cervical pleura, also known as the dome of the pleuradome of the pleura, lines the extendsiton of the pleural cavity into the neck.\nOption (D): \u201cThe pleura are composed of respiratory epithelium.\u201d This information is not correct. The pleaura are composed of connective tissue (CT).\nBecause (A), (B), and (D) are all incorrect, (D) is the only correct answer. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: What is the embryological origin of the hyoid bone?\n(A) The first pharyngeal arch (B) The first and second pharyngeal arches (C) The second pharyngeal arch (D) The second and third pharyngeal arches\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on anatomy for help. Let\u2019s solve this problem step by step. The hyoid bone, which is also known as the hyooid, is a a small U-shaped bone located in the anterior neck. In its resting position, it lies between the ase of the mandible and the third cervical vertebrae. We know that the second and the third pharyngeal arches give rise to the horns of the hyoid bone; therefore, the embryological origin of the hyoid bone are the second and the third pharyngeal arches\u2014this information is covered in the last option (D). Therefore, we conclude that (D) must be the correct answer. The answer is (D).", "astronomy": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about astronomy.\n\nQ: Where do most short-period comets come from and how do we know?\n(A) The Kuiper belt; short period comets tend to be in the plane of the solar system just like the Kuiper belt. (B) The Kuiper belt; short period comets tend to come from random directions indicating a spherical distribution of comets called the Kuiper belt. (C) The asteroid belt; short period comets have orbital periods similar to asteroids like Vesta and are found in the plane of the solar system just like the asteroid belt. (D) The Oort cloud; short period comets tend to be in the plane of the solar system just like the Oort cloud.\nA: Let's think step by step. Most short-period comets come from the Kuiper belt, and we know because short period coments tend to be in the plane of the solar system, just like the Kuiper belt is. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: You are pushing a truck along a road. Would it be easier to accelerate this truck on Mars? Why? (Assume there is no friction)\n(A) It would be harder since the truck is heavier on Mars. (B) It would be easier since the truck is lighter on Mars. (C) It would be harder since the truck is lighter on Mars. (D) It would be the same no matter where you are.\nA: Let's think step by step. If we assume that there is no friction, the force needed to accelerate the truck is by Newton\u2019s second law only dependent on the mass of the truck. Hence (A), (B) and (C) are incorrect since it doesn\u2019t matter that it\u2019s on Mars, and (D) is the correct answer. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Say the pupil of your eye has a diameter of 5 mm and you have a telescope with an aperture of 50 cm. How much more light can the telescope gather than your eye?\n(A) 10000 times more (B) 100 times more (C) 1000 times more (D) 10 times more\nA: Let's think step by step. The amount of light is proportional to the aperture area $A = \\pi D^2/4$ for a lens with diameter $D$, so the relative amounts of light between the eye with diameter 5mm and the telescope with diameter 50mm is $(50 cm)^2/(5mm)^2 = 10000$. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Why isn't there a planet where the asteroid belt is located?\n(A) A planet once formed here but it was broken apart by a catastrophic collision. (B) There was not enough material in this part of the solar nebula to form a planet. (C) There was too much rocky material to form a terrestrial planet but not enough gaseous material to form a jovian planet. (D) Resonance with Jupiter prevented material from collecting together to form a planet.\nA: Let's think step by step. The asteroid belt is a stellar disc consisting of a large number of asteroids between Mars and Jupiter's orbits. The asteroids in this belt are affected by the gravitational pull from both other asteroids and nearby planets. Due to the strong gravitational force of Jupiter there are resonances that give rise to low density regions of asteroids known as the Kirkwood gap. So (B) and (C) are not correct since it\u2019s not a lack of material that prevents a planet from being formed, and (A) is incorrect because the Kirkwood gap would have prevented a planet from forming in the first place, and (D) is the correct option. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Why is Mars red?\n(A) Because the surface is covered with heavily oxidized (\"rusted\") minerals. (B) Because the atmosphere scatters more light at bluer wavelengths transmitting mostly red light. (C) Because Mars is covered with ancient lava flows which are red in color. (D) Because flowing water on Mars's surface altered the surface minerals several billion years ago.\nA: Let's think step by step. Option (B) is not correct because if the red color was caused by the scattering off the atmosphere, then the earth with a much thicker atmosphere would also look red. Options (C) and (D) are not specific enough about why the color of the surface would be red, while (A) is correct because it explains that the surface is red due to the rusted materials on the surface and the red color comes from the rust. So the correct option is (A). The answer is (A).", "business_ethics": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about business ethics.\n\nQ: In contrast to _______, _______ aim to reward favourable behaviour by companies. The success of such campaigns have been heightened through the use of ___________, which allow campaigns to facilitate the company in achieving _________ .\n(A) Buycotts, Boycotts, Blockchain technology, Charitable donations (B) Buycotts, Boycotts, Digital technology, Increased Sales (C) Boycotts, Buyalls, Blockchain technology, Charitable donations (D) Boycotts, Buycotts, Digital technology, Increased Sales\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on business ethics for help. The sentence that best uses the possible options above is \u201cIn contrast to *boycotts*, *buycotts* aim to reward favourable behavior by companies. The success of such campaigns have been heightened through the use of *digital technology*, which allow campaigns to facilitate the company in achieving *increased sales*.\u201d The answer is (D).\n\nQ: _______ is the direct attempt to formally or informally manage ethical issues or problems, through specific policies, practices and programmes.\n(A) Corporate social responsibility (B) Business ethics management (C) Sustainability (D) Environmental management\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on business ethics for help. The direct attempt manage ethical issues through specific policies, practices, and programs is business ethics management. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Three contrasting tactics that CSO's can engage in to meet their aims are ________ which typically involves research and communication, ________, which may involve physically attacking a company's operations or ________, often involving some form of _______.\n(A) Non-violent direct action, Violent direct action, Indirect action, Boycott (B) Indirect action, Instrumental action, Non-violent direct action, Information campaign (C) Indirect action, Violent direct action, Non-violent direct-action Boycott (D) Non-violent direct action, Instrumental action, Indirect action, Information campaign\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on business ethics for help. The sentence that best uses the possible options above is \u201cThree contrasting tactics that CSO's can engage in to meet their aims are *indirect action*, which typically involves research and communication, *violent direct action*, which may involve physically attacking a company's operations or *non-violent direct action*, often involving some form of *boycott*.\u201d The answer is (C).\n\nQ: To ensure the independence of the non-executive board members, there are a number of steps which can be taken, which include non-executives being drawn from _______ the company, being appointed for a _________ time period as well as being appointed _________.\n(A) Outside, Limited, Independently (B) Inside, Limited, Intermittently (C) Outside, Unlimited, Intermittently (D) Inside, Unlimited, Independently\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on business ethics for help. The sentence that best uses the possible options above is \u201cTo ensure the independence of the non-executive board members, there are a number of steps which can be taken, which include non-executives being draw from *outside* the company, being appointed for a *limited* time period as well as being imported *independently*. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Beyond the business case for engaging in CSR there are a number of moral arguments relating to: negative _______, the _______that corporations possess and the ________ of business and society.\n(A) Externalities, Power, Independence (B) Publicity, Insubstantial resources, Mutual dependence (C) Publicity, Power, Independence (D) Externalities, Power, Mutual dependence\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on business ethics for help. The sentence that best uses the possible options above is \u201cBeyond the business case for engaging the CSR there are a number of moral arguments relating to: negative *externalities*, the *power* that corporations possess and the *mutual independence* of business and society. The answer is (D).", "clinical_knowledge": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about clinical knowledge.\n\nQ: Glycolysis is the name given to the pathway involving the conversion of:\n(A) glycogen to glucose-1-phosphate. (B) glycogen or glucose to fructose. (C) glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or lactate. (D) glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or acetyl CoA.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on clinical knowledge for help. Glycolysis is the name given to the pathway involving conversion of glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or lactate. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: What is the difference between a male and a female catheter?\n(A) Male and female catheters are different colours. (B) Male catheters are longer than female catheters. (C) Male catheters are bigger than female catheters. (D) Female catheters are longer than male catheters.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on clinical knowledge for help. The difference between a male and female catheter is that male catheters tend to be longer than female catheters. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: How many attempts should you make to cannulate a patient before passing the job on to a senior colleague, according to the medical knowledge of 2020?\n(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on clinical knowledge for help. According to the medical protocol as of 2020, you should make two attempts to cannulate a patient before passing the job on to a more-senior practitioner. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: In the assessment of the hand function which of the following is true?\n(A) Abduction of the thumb is supplied by spinal root T2 (B) Opposition of the thumb by opponens policis is supplied by spinal root T1 (C) Finger adduction is supplied by the median nerve (D) Finger abduction is mediated by the palmar interossei\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on clinical knowledge for help. Of all the options, it is only true that the opposition of the thumb by opponens pollicis is supplied by spinal root T1. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: The energy for all forms of muscle contraction is provided by:\n(A) ATP. (B) ADP. (C) phosphocreatine. (D) oxidative phosphorylation.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on clinical knowledge for help. The energy for muscular contraction is provided by ATP (adenosine triphosphate), which is the powerhouse of the cell. The answer is (A).", "college_biology": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about college biology.\n\nQ: Which of the following represents an accurate statement concerning arthropods?\n(A) They possess an exoskeleton composed primarily of peptidoglycan. (B) They possess an open circulatory system with a dorsal heart. (C) They are members of a biologically unsuccessful phylum incapable of exploiting diverse habitats and nutrition sources. (D) They lack paired, jointed appendages.\nA: Let's think step by step. Peptidoglycan is known to comprise the plasma membrane of most bacteria, rather than the exoskeleton of arthropods, which is made of chitin, which rules out (A). The answer (C) is false because arthropods are a highly successful phylum. Likewise, arthropods have paired, jointed appendages, which rules out (D). The only remaining option is (B), as arthropods have an open circulatory system with a dorsal tubular heart. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: In a given population, 1 out of every 400 people has a cancer caused by a completely recessive allele, b. Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, which of the following is the expected proportion of individuals who carry the b allele but are not expected to develop the cancer?\n(A) 1/400 (B) 19/400 (C) 20/400 (D) 38/400\nA: Let's think step by step. According to the Hardy Weinberg Law, $p^2 + 2 p q + q^2 = 1$, and $p + q = 1$ where $p$ is the frequency of the dominant allele, $q$ is the frequency of the recessive allele, and $p^2$, $q^2$, and $2pq$ are the frequencies of dominant homozygous, recessive homozygous, and heterozygous individuals, respectively. \u200bThe frequency of the recessive allele (q) is $\\sqrt{\frac{1}{400}} = 0.05$. We have $p = 1 - q = 0.95$. The frequency of heterozygous individuals is $2pq = 2 \\cdot 0.05 \\cdot 0.95 = 0.095$. The number of heterozygous individuals is equal to the frequency of heterozygous individuals times the size of the population, or $0.095 * 400 = 38$. So we end up with 38/400. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: According to the pressure-flow model of movement of phloem contents, photosynthate movement from source to sink is driven by\n(A) an ATP-dependent pressure-flow pump (B) a water-pressure potential gradient (C) transpiration (D) apoplastic diffusion\nA: Let's think step by step. It is a gradient in water pressure that induces the movement of phloem content, which refers to answer (B). The mechanism of movement does not rely on metabolism, which rules out (A). Transpiration refers to the exhalation of water vapor through plant stomata, and is also not related, which rules out (C). While the apoplastic pathway is one of two main pathways for water transport in plants, it is not central to the pressure flow model, which rules out (D). The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Which of the following contain DNA sequences required for the segregation of chromosomes in mitosis and meiosis?\n(A) Telomeres (B) Centromeres (C) Nucleosomes (D) Spliceosomes\nA: Let's think step by step. The genetic material in Telomeres is not used, which rules out (A). Nucleosomes are the repeating subunit that comprises chromatin packed in a cell nucleus, and do not specifically refer to DNA sequences necessary for segregating chromosomes in cell division, which rules out (C). A spliceosome is a large ribonucleoprotein that removes introns from transcribed pre-mRNA rather than governing chromosome segregation. Centromeres are directly responsible for segregating chromosomes in cell division. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: The presence of homologous structures in two different organisms, such as the humerus in the front limb of a human and a bird, indicates that\n(A) the human and bird are polyphyletic species (B) a human's and bird's evolution is convergent (C) the human and bird belong to a clade (D) the human and bird developed by analogy\nA: Let's think step by step. Polyphyletic species are organisms that are grouped due to having similar characteristics but which do not have a common ancestor. This is not the case for humans and birds, which rules out (A). Convergent evolution refers to the indepdendent development of similar features in different species at different periods, which is also not the case for humans and birds, which rules out (B). Analogy refers to the superficial resemblance of structures that have different origins, which is not the case for the human and bird forearms, which rules out (D). Humans and birds do belong to the same clade - a group of organisms composed of a common ancestor. The answer is (C).", "college_chemistry": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about college chemistry.\n\nQ: 3 Cl\u2212(aq) + 4 CrO_4^2\u2212(aq) + 23 H+(aq) \u2192 3 HClO2(aq) + 4 Cr3+(aq) + 10 H2O(l). In the reaction shown above, Cl\u2212(aq) behaves as\n(A) an acid (B) a base (C) a catalyst (D) a reducing agent\nA: Let's think step by step. A molecule that behaves as a base accepts an H+ ion (or proton) from another molecule, whereas a molecule that behaves as an acid donates an H+ ion (or proton) to another molecule. Neither of these is the case for Cl in this reaction, which rules out (A) and (B). A catalyst is a substance that only accelerates a reaction without itself undergoing chemical change, which is not the case here. This rules out (C). Instead, the $Cl^{-} molecules carry a negative charge, which they donate in the reaction to form 3 HClO2. This is the behavior of a reducing agent, or (D). The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Which of the following statements about the lanthanide elements is NOT true?\n(A) The most common oxidation state for the lanthanide elements is +3. (B) Lanthanide complexes often have high coordination numbers (> 6). (C) All of the lanthanide elements react with aqueous acid to liberate hydrogen. (D) The atomic radii of the lanthanide elements increase across the period from La to Lu.\nA: Let's think step by step. The atomic radii of the lanthanide elements in fact decrease across the period from La to Lu. Options (A), (B), and (C) are all true. This means that only (D) is NOT true. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Which of the following lists the hydrides of group-14 elements in order of thermal stability, from lowest to highest?\n(A) PbH4 < SnH4 < GeH4 < SiH4 < CH4 (B) PbH4 < SnH4 < CH4 < GeH4 < SiH4 (C) CH4 < SiH4 < GeH4 < SnH4 < PbH4 (D) CH4 < PbH4 < GeH4 < SnH4 < SiH4\nA: Let's think step by step. The thermal stability of group-14 hydrides decreases as we move from the top of group 14 to the bottom. The order of elements in the group from top to bottom is C, Si, Ge, Sn, Pb. Therefore in order of increasing thermal stability we have PbH4, SnH4, GeH4, SiH4, and CH4, or answer (A). The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Predict the number of lines in the EPR spectrum of a solution of 13C-labelled methyl radical (13CH3\u2022), assuming the lines do not overlap.\n(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 24 (E) 8\nA: Let's think step by step. The electron paramagnetic resonance spectrum will be split by two forms of interactions. The first is the hyperfine interaction with the 13C (nuclear spin $I = \nrac{1}{2}$) which will split the spectrum into 2 lines. This will be further split into 4 lines by the interaction with three equivalent 1H nuclei. The total number of lines is therefore $2 \\cdot 4 = 8$. The answer is (E).", "college_computer_science": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about college computer science.\n\nQ: Which of the following regular expressions is equivalent to (describes the same set of strings as) (a* + b)*(c + d)?\n(A) a*(c + d)+ b(c + d)\n(B) a*(c + d)* + b(c + d)*\n(C) a*(c + d)+ b*(c + d)\n(D) (a + b)*c +(a + b)*d\nA: Let's think step by step. We know that:\n1. (X* + Y)* = (X + Y)*\n2. X(Y + Z)? = XY + XZ\nUsing equation 1 we can rewrite (a* + b)*(c + d)? as:\n3. (a + b)*(c + d)?\nUsing equation 2 we can rewrite equation 3 as:\n(a + b)*c + (a + b)*d The answer is (D).\n\nQ: The Singleton design pattern is used to guarantee that only a single instance of a class may be instantiated. Which of the following is (are) true of this design pattern?\nI. The Singleton class has a static factory method to provide its instance.\nII. The Singleton class can be a subclass of another class.\nIII. The Singleton class has a private constructor.\n(A) I only\n(B) II only\n(C) III only\n(D) I, II, and III\nA: Let's think step by step. Statement I is a correct statement about a Singleton, because a Singleton restricts instantiation to a single, static method. Statement II is also correct, because there is no inherent restriction regarding the inheritance of a Singleton. Statement III is also correct, because a Singletons must be instantiated only once, so its constructor is made private to prevent any construction except via its static factory method.\nGiven these facts, statements I, II, and III are all correct. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: A certain pipelined RISC machine has 8 general-purpose registers R0, R1, . . . , R7 and supports the following operations:\nADD Rs1, Rs2, Rd (Add Rs1 to Rs2 and put the sum in Rd)\nMUL Rs1, Rs2, Rd (Multiply Rs1 by Rs2 and put the product in Rd)\nAn operation normally takes one cycle; however, an operation takes two cycles if it produces a result required by the immediately following operation in an operation sequence.\nConsider the expression AB + ABC + BC, where variables A, B, C are located in registers R0, R1, R2. If the contents of these three registers must not be modified, what is the minimum number of clock cycles required for an operation sequence that computes the value of AB + ABC + BC?\n(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8\nA: Let's think step by step. First, we are given that A is in R0, B is in R1, and C is in R2.\nNext, we can see that we must compute three multiplies (AB, BC, and ABC) and two adds (AB + ABC, (AB + ABC) + BC) to compute our final answer, resulting in a minimum of five clock cycles.\nNext, we can see that there is no way to avoid at least one pipeline stall when computing our final answer, because to compute our final sum we must wait at least one cycle for the results from the previous stage to be ready. Thus, our minimum number of cycles must be 6.\nWe can verify that we can create a solution that requires only six cycles as follows:\ncompute AB: MUL R0, R1, R3\ncompute BC: MUL R1, R2, R4\ncompute ABC: MUL R3, R4, R5\ncompute AB + BC: ADD R3, R4, R6\nSTALL\ncompute AB + ABC + BC: ADD R5, R6, R7\nSo there are 6 cycles. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: A compiler generates code for the following assignment statement.\nG := (A + B) * C - (D + E) * F\nThe target machine has a single accumulator and a single-address instruction set consisting of instructions load, store, add, subtract, and multiply. For the arithmetic operations, the left operand is taken from the accumulator and the result appears in the accumulator. The smallest possible number of instructions in the resulting code is\n(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 9\nA: Let's think step by step. We can compute the final answer with the following sequence of operations:\n1. LOAD D  (accumulator = D)\n2. ADD E  (accumulator = D+E)\n3. MUL F  (accumulator = (D+E)*F)\n4. STORE X (X = (D+E)*F)\n5. LOAD A  (accumulator = A)\n6. ADD B  (accumulator = A+B)\n7. MUL C  (accumulator = (A+B)*C)\n8. SUB X  (accumulator = (A+B)*C - (D+E)*F)\n9. STORE G (G = (A+B)*C - (D+E)*F)\nThis sequence takes 9 instructions. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Consider a computer design in which multiple processors, each with a private cache memory, share global memory using a single bus. This bus is the critical system resource. Each processor can execute one instruction every 500 nanoseconds as long as memory references are satisfied by its local cache. When a cache miss occurs, the processor is delayed for an additional 2,000 nanoseconds. During half of this additional delay, the bus is dedicated to serving the cache miss. During the other half, the processor cannot continue, but the bus is free to service requests from other processors. On average, each instruction requires 2 memory references. On average, cache misses occur on 1 percent of references. What proportion of the capacity of the bus would a single processor consume, ignoring delays due to competition from other processors?\n(A) 1/50 (B) 1/27 (C) 1/25 (D) 2/27\nA: Let's think step by step. We know that each instruction requires two memory references per instruction, and that there is an average cache miss rate of one percent.\nThus a given processor has:\n(1 cache miss / 100 references) * (2 references / instruction) =\n(2 cache misses / 100 instructions), so:\nmisses_per_instruction = 1 cache miss / 50 instructions.\nNext, we know that each instruction requires 500 nanoseconds when there is no cache miss, and 500 + 2000 = 2500 nanoseconds when there is a cache miss. Thus:\n50 instructions / (49 * 500) + (1 * 2500) nanoseconds, so:\ninstructions_per_ns = 50 instructions / 27000 nanoseconds.\nNow, we know that each cache miss locks the bus for half of the 2000 nanosecond cache miss delay, or 1000 nanoseconds, so:\nlock_ns_per_miss = 1000 nanoseconds / cache miss.\nThus we can see that on average a single processor will lock the bus for:\nlock_ns_per_miss * misses_per_instruction * instructions_per_ns =\n(1000 nanoseconds / cache miss) * (1 cache miss / 50 instructions) * (50 instructions / 27000 nanoseconds) = 1000 * (1/50) * (50/27000) = 1000/27000 = 1/27. The answer is (B).", "college_mathematics": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about college mathematics.\n\nQ: Let V be the set of all real polynomials p(x). Let transformations T, S be defined on V by T:p(x) -> xp(x) and S:p(x) -> p'(x) = d/dx p(x), and interpret (ST)(p(x)) as S(T(p(x))). Which of the following is true?\n(A) ST = 0 (B) ST = T (C) ST = TS (D) ST - TS is the identity map of V onto itself.\nA: Let's think step by step. For a given polynomial $p$ we have\n\\[ST(p) = (xp(x))\u2019 = p(x) + xp\u2019(x)\\]\nand\n\\[TS(p) = xp\u2019(x).\\]\nHence \\[ST(p) - TS(p) = p(x) + xp\u2019(x) - xp\u2019(x).\\] The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Suppose that f(1 + x) = f(x) for all real x. If f is a polynomial and f(5) = 11, then f(15/2)\n(A) -11 (B) 0 (C) 11 (D) 33/2\nA: Let's think step by step. The only polynomial so that $f(1 + x) = f(x)$ is a constant polynomial. Hence $f(5) = 11 = f(15/2)$. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Let A be a real 2x2 matrix. Which of the following statements must be true?\nI. All of the entries of A^2 are nonnegative.\nII. The determinant of A^2 is nonnegative.\nIII. If A has two distinct eigenvalues, then A^2 has two distinct eigenvalues.\n(A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) II and III only\nA: Let's think step by step. We have \\[ det(A^2) = (det(A))^2 \\geq 0,\\] hence II holds.\nIII is false: as a counterexample take a diagonal matrix with -1 and 1 on the diagonal. Then $A^2$ is the identity matrix. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Let A be the set of all ordered pairs of integers (m, n) such that 7m + 12n = 22. What is the greatest negative number in the set B = {m + n : (m, n) \\in A}?\n(A) -5 (B) -4 (C) -3 (D) -2\nA: Let's think step by step. We have 12n = 22 - 7m and one of the solutions is $m = -2$, $n = 3$. Then $m + n = 1$, hence we need to look for smaller $m$ in order to make $m + n$ negative. The next solution is $m = -14$ and $n = 10$. For smaller $m$ we have $m + n$ smaller than $-4$. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: A tank initially contains a salt solution of 3 grams of salt dissolved in 100 liters of water. A salt solution containing 0.02 grams of salt per liter of water is sprayed into the tank at a rate of 4 liters per minute. The sprayed solution is continually mixed with the salt solution in the tank, and the mixture flows out of the tank at a rate of 4 liters per minute. If the mixing is instantaneous, how many grams of salt are in the tank after 100 minutes have elapsed?\n(A) 2 (B) 2 - e^-2 (C) 2 + e^-2 (D) 2 + e^-4\nA: Let's think step by step. For all $t \\in \\mathbb{R}$, let $s(t)$ denote the number grams of salt in the tank at the $t$ minute mark. Then $s(0) = 3$.\nWe use $s$ and $s(t)$ interchangeably. We also use $s^{\\prime}$ and $s^{\\prime}(t)$ interchangeably. The solution sprayed into the tank adds $(0.02) 4=2 / 25$ grams of salt per minute. There are always 100 liters of liquid in the tank, containing $s$ grams of salt. So the density of salt in the tank is $s / 100$ grams per liter. The flow of water out of the tank therefore subtracts $4(s / 100)=s / 25$ grams of salt per minute. Then, for all $t \\in \\mathbb{R}$, we have $s^{\\prime}(t)=(2 / 25)-(s / 25)=(2-s) / 25$, and so $[s(t)=2] \\Rightarrow\\left[s^{\\prime}(t)=0\right]$. For all $t \\in \\mathbb{R}$,\n$$\n\frac{d}{d t}[\\ln (s-2)]=\frac{s^{\\prime}}{s-2}=\frac{-1}{25}=\frac{d}{d t}\\left[-\frac{t}{25}\right] .\n$$\nChoose $C \\in \\mathbb{R}$ such that, for all $t \\in \\mathbb{R}, \\ln ((s(t)-2))=-[t / 25]+C$. Let $K:=e^{C}$. Then, for all $t \\in \\mathbb{R}$, we have $(s(t))-2=K e^{-t / 25}$, and so $s(t)=2+K e^{-t / 25}$. Then $3=s(0)=2+K e^{0}=2+K$, so $K=1$. Then $s(100)=2+K e^{-100 / 25}=2+1 \\cdot e^{-4}=2+e^{-4}$. The answer is (D).", "college_medicine": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about college medicine.\n\nQ: An expected side effect of creatine supplementation is:\n(A) muscle weakness. (B) gain in body mass. (C) muscle cramps. (D) loss of electrolytes.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on medicine for help. Creatine supplementation is a dietary supplement that results in body mass gain. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Which of the following is not a true statement?\n(A) Muscle glycogen is broken down enzymatically to glucose-1-phosphate (B) Elite endurance runners have a high proportion of Type I fibres in their leg muscles (C) Liver glycogen is important in the maintenance of the blood glucose concentration (D) Insulin promotes glucose uptake by all tissues in the body\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on medicine for help. Let\u2019s solve this step by step and go over each choice: \n(A) \u201cMuscle glycogen is broken down enzymatically to glucose-1-phosphate\u201d: This is a correct statement.\n(B) \u201cElite endurance runners have a high proportion of Type I fibres in their leg muscles\u201d: This is a correct statement.\n(C) \u201cLiver glycogen is important in the maintenance of the blood glucose concentration\u201d: This is a correct statement. \n(D) \u201cInsulin promotes glucose uptake by all tissues in the body\u201d: This is not a correct statement, because insulin promotes glucose uptake by the liver, adipose tissue, and muscle, but not all tissues. For instance, the tissues in the brain and red blood cells are not affected by insulin. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: A high school science teacher fills a 1 liter bottle with pure nitrogen and seals the lid. The pressure is 1.70 atm, and the room temperature is 25\u00b0C. Which two variables will both increase the pressure of the system, if all other variables are held constant?\n(A) Increasing temperature, increasing moles of gas (B) Increasing temperature, increasing volume (C) Decreasing volume, decreasing temperature (D) Decreasing moles of gas, increasing volume\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on medicine for help. The relevant equation for this is the ideal gas law: PV=nRT. To increase the pressure of the system (P), then either n (number of moles of the gas) or T (temperature) have to increase. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: In a genetic test of a newborn, a rare genetic disorder is found that has X-linked recessive transmission. Which of the following statements is likely true regarding the pedigree of this disorder?\n(A) All descendants on the maternal side will have the disorder. (B) Females will be approximately twice as affected as males in this family. (C) All daughters of an affected male will be affected. (D) There will be equal distribution of males and females affected.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on medicine for help. Let\u2019s solve this step by step. Let's recall first that females have two X chromosomes, while males have one X and one Y chromosome. This is an important fact we need to know before answering this question. \nBecause a male can only pass his only one X chromosome to a daughter, if he is affected by this rare genetic disorder, then we know for sure that he will pass this rare genetic disorder to all his future-born daughters. Therefore, \u201c(C): All daughters of an affected male will be affected\u201d is a correct statement. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Glucose is transported into the muscle cell:\n(A) via protein transporters called GLUT4. (B) only in the presence of insulin. (C) via hexokinase. (D) via monocarbylic acid transporters.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on medicine for help. Glucose (also known as the blood sugar) is the main sugar found in the human body. It is transported into the muscle cell via diffusion through protein transporters called GLUT4. The answer is (A).", "college_physics": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about college physics.\n\nQ: A refracting telescope consists of two converging lenses separated by 100 cm. The eye-piece lens has a focal length of 20 cm. The angular magnification of the telescope is\n(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 20\nA: Let's think step by step. In a refracting telescope, if both lenses are converging, the focus of both lenses must be between the two lenses, and thus the focal lengths of the two lenses must add up to their separation. Since the focal length of one lens is 20 cm, the focal length of the other must be 80 cm. The magnification is the ratio of these two focal lengths, or 4. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: The muon decays with a characteristic lifetime of about 10^-6 second into an electron, a muon neutrino, and an electron antineutrino. The muon is forbidden from decaying into an electron and just a single neutrino by the law of conservation of\n(A) charge (B) mass (C) energy and momentum (D) lepton number\nA: Let's think step by step. Lepton number must be conserved, meaning the total number of leptons minus the number of antileptons. If a muon decays into an electron and a single neutrino, the total lepton number would go from one to two, violating lepton number conservation. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: One end of a Nichrome wire of length 2L and cross-sectional area A is attached to an end of another Nichrome wire of length L and cross- sectional area 2A. If the free end of the longer wire is at an electric potential of 8.0 volts, and the free end of the shorter wire is at an electric potential of 1.0 volt, the potential at the junction of the two wires is most nearly equal to\n(A) 2.4 V (B) 3.3 V (C) 4.5 V (D) 5.7 V\nA: Let's think step by step. This is a simple voltage divider problem, where the longer wire has a resistance four times that of the shorter end. So the voltage divider ratio is 1 / 5, meaning that the potential in the middle is 1.0 V + (8.0 V - 1.0 V) * 1/5 = 2.4 V. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: A refracting telescope consists of two converging lenses separated by 100 cm. The eye-piece lens has a focal length of 20 cm. The angular magnification of the telescope is\n(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 20\nA: Let's think step by step. In a refracting telescope, if both lenses are converging, the focus of both lenses must be between the two lenses, and thus the focal lengths of the two lenses must add up to their separation. Since the focal length of one lens is 20 cm, the focal length of the other must be 80 cm. The magnification is the ratio of these two focal lengths, or 4. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: For which of the following thermodynamic processes is the increase in the internal energy of an ideal gas equal to the heat added to the gas?\n(A) Constant temperature (B) Constant volume (C) Constant pressure (D) Adiabatic\nA: Let's think step by step. Heat added to the gas can go into the gases internal energy or work done against an external force. However, if the volume of the gas container is constant, no work will be done (since work is pressure times change in volume). So, at constant volume, all of the heat goes into the internal energy. The answer is (B).", "computer_security": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about computer security.\n\nQ: SHA-1 has a message digest of\n(A) 160 bits (B) 512 bits (C) 628 bits (D) 820 bits\nA: Let's think step by step. Since SHA-1 is a hash function which takes an input and produces a 160-bit (20-byte) hash value, its message digest is 160 bits. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: _____________ can modify data on your system \u2013 so that your system doesn\u2019t run correctly or you can no longer access specific data, or it may even ask for ransom in order to give your access.\n(A) IM \u2013 Trojans (B) Backdoor Trojans (C) Trojan-Downloader (D) Ransom Trojan\nA: Let's think step by step. The system is asking for trojans, which are for ransom, which means ransom trojan. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: What is ethical hacking?\n(A) \"Hacking\" ethics so they justify unintended selfish behavior (B) Hacking systems (e.g., during penetration testing) to expose vulnerabilities so they can be fixed, rather than exploited (C) Hacking into systems run by those whose ethics you disagree with (D) A slang term for rapid software development, e.g., as part of hackathons\nA: Let's think step by step. Ethical hacking is a process of detecting vulnerabilities in an application, system, or organization's infrastructure that an attacker can use to exploit an individual or organization. They use this process to prevent cyberattacks and security breaches by lawfully hacking into the systems and looking for weak points. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: The ____________ is anything which your search engine cannot search.\n(A) Haunted web (B) World Wide Web (C) Surface web (D) Deep Web\nA: Let's think step by step. The search engine searches on the Surface Web, which is the portion of the world wide web which is visible so (B,C) are wrong. The Haunted Web doesn\u2019t correspond to an internet concept. The Deep Web is the part of the World Wide Web which is not indexed. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Exploitation of the Heartbleed bug permits\n(A) overwriting cryptographic keys in memory (B) a kind of code injection (C) a read outside bounds of a buffer (D) a format string attack\nA: Let's think step by step. The Heartbleed Bug is a serious vulnerability in the popular OpenSSL cryptographic software library. Heartbleed resulted from improper input validation (due to a missing bounds check) in the implementation of the TLS heartbeat extension. The vulnerability was classified as a buffer over-read, a situation where more data can be read than should be allowed. The answer is (C).", "conceptual_physics": "\nThe following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about conceptual physics.\n\nQ: Colors in a soap bubble result from light\n(A) converted to a different frequency (B) deflection (C) interference (D) polarization\nA: Let's think step by step. In a soap bubble film, the light bounces between the two soap-air interfaces many times, interfering with itself constructively or destructively depending on the width of the film. This results in different colors being visible. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Compared with the mass of a uranium atom undergoing fission, the combined masses of the products after fission are\n(A) less (B) more (C) the same (D) zero\nA: Let's think step by step. Fission releases energy, which comes from the rest mass of its initial nucleus. Thus the mass of the products is less than the mass of the reactant uranium nucleus. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Things that are equivalent according to the equivalence principle are\n(A) space and time. (B) a traveling twin and a stay-at-home twin. (C) gravity and acceleration. (D) mass and energy.\nA: Let's think step by step. Einstein\u2019s famous equivalence principle states that gravity and acceleration are equivalent. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Which of these three elements has the most mass per nucleon?\n(A) Hydrogen (B) Iron (C) Uranium (D) Same in each\nA: Let's think step by step. Due to nuclear binding energy, the mass of an atomic nucleus is less than the sum of individual masses of the free constituent protons and neutrons; this is known as the mass defect. Hydrogen has no mass defect because it has only a single nucleon, so it will have the most mass per nucleon. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: A model airplane flies slower when flying into the wind and faster with wind at its back. When launched at right angles to the wind a cross wind its groundspeed compared with flying in still air is\n(A) the same (B) greater (C) less (D) either greater or less depending on wind speed\nA: Let's think step by step. The plane\u2019s speed in the direction of the wind is greater than it would be in the absence of wind, and its direction orthogonal to the wind is the same as it would be in the absence of the wind. The total speed, which is these two components added in quadrature, is thus greater than the speed in still air. The answer is (B).", "econometrics": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about econometrics.\n\nQ: Suppose now that a researcher wishes to use information criteria to determine the optimal lag length for a VAR. 500 observations are available for the bi-variate VAR, and the values of the determinant of the variance-covariance matrix of residuals are 0.0336, 0.0169, 0.0084, and 0.0062 for 1, 2, 3, and 4 lags respectively. What is the optimal model order according to Akaike's information criterion?\n(A) 1 lag (B) 2 lags (C) 3 lags (D) 4 lags\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on econometrics for help. Let\u2019s solve this problem step by step. First of all, let\u2019s recall that for a given set of data, Akaike's information criterion (AIC) allows us to measure how well a statistical model fits the data; it is an estimator of prediction error. Here in this problem we will need to use the formula ln(det(sigma_hat)) + (2 * k / T) to determine the values of Akaike\u2019s criterion, where ln denotes the natural log function, det the determinant function, k the total number of parameters in total (across both equations), and T the number of observations (which, in this case, is equal to 500). For 1 lag, the number of parameters in total is equal to 6; for 2 lags, it is 10; for 3 lags, it is 14; and for 4 lags, it is 18. Now, let\u2019s calculate the values of the criterion for each lag:\n(A) 1 lag: ln(0.0336) + (2 * 6 / 500) = ln(0.0336) + (12 / 500) = -3.369\n(B) 2 lags: ln(0.0169) + (2 * 10 / 500) = ln(0.0169) + (20 / 500) = -4.040\n(C) 3 lags: ln(0.0084) + (2 * 14 / 500) = ln(0.0084) + (28 / 500) =-4.724\n(D) 4 lags: ln(0.0062) + (2 * 18 / 500) = ln(0.0062) + (36 / 500) =-5.011\nBecause the optimal model order according to AIC minimizes the information criterion, the answer should be the one with the lowest value. In this case, (D) has the lowest value. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Consider the following AR(1) model with the disturbances having zero mean and unit variance\nyt = 0.2 + 0.4 yt-1 + ut\nThe (unconditional) mean of y will be given by\n(A) 0.2 (B) 0.4 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.33\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on econometrics for help. Let\u2019s solve this problem step by step. If we have a an AR(1) model with the disturbances having zero mean and unit variance, then the unconditional mean of y is equal to the following:\nunconditional mean of y = (the intercept term) / (1 - autoregressive coefficient)\nWe know that the intercept term is 0.2 and the autoregressive coefficient is 0.4; thus, we have:\nunconditional mean of y = (0.2) / (1 - 0.4) = (0.2) / (0.6) = 2 / 6 = 1 / 3, which is approximately 0.33. That means that the answer should be (D) 0.33. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: What would be then consequences for the OLS estimator if heteroscedasticity is present in a regression model but ignored?\n(A) It will be biased (B) It will be inconsistent (C) It will be inefficient (D) All of (a), (b) and (c) will be true.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on econometrics for help. Heteroscedasticity refers to the condition where the variance of the error terms is not constant across multiple observations. If heteroscedasticity is present in a regression model, then the coefficient estimates in the OLS estimator will be not only unbiased and consistent but also inefficient. Because (A) and (B) are incorrect choices and (C) is a correct choice, (D) cannot be the right answer. Ultimately, (C) is the only true choice. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Suppose that a test statistic has associated with it a p-value of 0.08. Which one of the following statements is true?\n(i) If the size of the test were exactly 8%, we would be indifferent between rejecting and not rejecting the null hypothesis\n(ii) The null would be rejected if a 10% size of test were used\n(iii) The null would not be rejected if a 1% size of test were used\n(iv) The null would be rejected if a 5% size of test were used.\n(A) (ii) and (iv) only (B) (i) and (iii) only (C) (i), (ii), and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv).\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on econometrics for help. Let\u2019s reason about each of the options.\n(i) is a true statement.\n(ii) is a true statement.\n(iii) is a true statement.\n(iv) is not a true statement. Thus, (i), (ii), and (iii) are true. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: For a stationary autoregressive process, shocks will\n(A) Eventually die away (B) Persist indefinitely (C) Grow exponentially (D) Never occur\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on econometrics for help. This is a formal logic problem about stationally process. For a stationary autoregressive process, shocks will eventually die away. The answer is (A).", "electrical_engineering": "\nThe following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about electrical engineering.\n\nQ: A point pole has a strength of 4\u03c0 * 10^-4 weber. The force in newtons on a point pole of 4\u03c0 * 1.5 * 10^-4 weber placed at a distance of 10 cm from it will be\n(A) 15 N. (B) 20 N. (C) 7.5 N. (D) 3.75 N.\nA: Let's think step by step. The force between two point poles is given by m_1m_2/(mu_0 4 \\pi r^2), in analogy to Coulomb\u2019s law. Plugging in the values given in the question, we calculate that the force is approximately 15 N. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: The coil of a moving coil meter has 100 turns, is 40 mm long and 30 mm wide. The control torque is 240*10-6 N-m on full scale. If magnetic flux density is 1Wb/m2 range of meter is\n(A) 1 mA. (B) 2 mA. (C) 3 mA. (D) 4 mA.\nA: Let's think step by step. The torque on a coil in a uniform magnetic field is given by BANI, where B is the magnetic flux density, A is the area of the coil, N is the number of turns, and I is the current. So we have that I = (Torque)/(BAN), or 240e-6/(1200e-6 * 100 * 1) = 2e-3. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: In an SR latch built from NOR gates, which condition is not allowed\n(A) S=0, R=0 (B) S=0, R=1 (C) S=1, R=0 (D) S=1, R=1\nA: Let's think step by step. An SR latch is a set-reset latch; in the case where S=1 and R=1, the circuit has no stable state; instead a race condition will be produced within the circuit, so the device will be in an undefined state. So S=1, R=1 is an illegal input. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Two long parallel conductors carry 100 A. If the conductors are separated by 20 mm, the force per meter of length of each conductor will be\n(A) 100 N. (B) 0.1 N. (C) 1 N. (D) 0.01 N.\nA: Let's think step by step. The magnetic force-per-length between two current-carrying conductors is given by \\mu_0 I_1 I_2 / (2 \\pi r), where $r$ is the separation distance and I_1 and I_2 are the currents. Plugging in 100 A for I_1 and I_2, and 20 mm for r, gives 0.1 N. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: In a 2 pole lap winding dc machine , the resistance of one conductor is 2\u03a9 and total number of conductors is 100. Find the total resistance\n(A) 200\u03a9 (B) 100\u03a9 (C) 50\u03a9 (D) 10\u03a9\nA: Let's think step by step. In lap winding, effectively two resistors are connected in parallel, so the actual resistance of each pair is 1 Ohm. Since we have 50 pairs, we get a total resistance of 50 Ohms. The answer is (C).", "elementary_mathematics": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about elementary mathematics.\n\nQ: Olivia used the rule \"Add 11\" to create the number pattern shown below. 10, 21, 32, 43, 54. Which statement about the number pattern is true?\n(A) The 10th number in the pattern will be an even number.\n(B) The number pattern will never have two even numbers next to each other.\n(C) The next two numbers in the pattern will be an even number then an odd number.\n(D) If the number pattern started with an odd number then the pattern would have only odd numbers in it.\nA: Let's think step by step. Choice A is incorrect because every even-numbered term in the pattern is odd, and 10 is an even number. Choice B is correct, because adding an odd number (in this case 11) to an odd number produces an even number, and adding an odd number to an even number produces an odd number. Thus the terms in the pattern will alternate between odd and even, so there will never be two even numbers next to each other. Choice C is incorrect because the last term in the example is even (54), and we know that the terms will alternate between even and odd. Choice D is incorrect because the terms in the pattern will alternate between odd and even, regardless of the value of the first term. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: The population of the city where Michelle was born is 145,826. What is the value of the 5 in the number 145,826?\n(A) 5 thousands\n(B) 5 hundreds\n(C) 5 tens\n(D) 5 ones\nA: Let's think step by step. Choice A is correct, because there are three digits following the 5, so\nthe 5 is in the thousands place. Thus the other choices are incorrect. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: A store sells 107 different colors of paint. They have 25 cans of each color in storage. The number of cans of paint the store has in storage can be found using the expression below. 107 \u00d7 25. How many cans of paint does the store have in storage?\n(A) 749\n(B) 2,675\n(C) 2,945\n(D) 4,250\nA: Let's think step by step. We can calculate 107 x 25 = (100 x 25) + (7 x 25) = 2500 + 175 = 2675. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: A total of 30 players will play basketball at a park. There will be exactly 5 players on each team. Which statement correctly explains how to find the number of teams needed?\n(A) Add 5 to 30 to find 35 teams.\n(B) Divide 30 by 5 to find 6 teams.\n(C) Multiply 30 and 5 to find 150 teams.\n(D) Subtract 5 from 30 to find 25 teams.\nA: Let's think step by step. We want to find the number of teams. We know that there are 5 players/team, and 30 players. Thus to get the number of teams we divide players by players/team, so 30 players / 5 players/team = 6 teams. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Which expression is equivalent to 5 x 9?\n(A) (5 x 4) x (6 x 5)\n(B) (5 x 5) + (5 x 4)\n(C) (5 x 5) + (5 x 9)\n(D) (5 x 9) x (6 x 9)\nA: Let's think step by step. We know that 9 = (5 + 4), so 5 x 9 = 5 x (5 + 4) = (5 x 5) + (5 x 4). The answer is (B).", "formal_logic": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about formal logic.\n\nQ: Which of the given formulas of PL is the best symbolization of the following sentence?\nTurtles live long lives and are happy creatures, unless they are injured.\n(A) (L \u2022 H) \u2261 I (B) (L \u2022 H) \u2228 I (C) L \u2022 (H \u2228 I) (D) L \u2022 (H \u2283 R).\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on formal logic for help. Let\u2019s solve this step by step. Let \u201cL\u201d denote \u201cliving long\u201d, H \u201cbeing happy\u201d, and \u201cI\u201d \u201cbeing injured\u201d. Now, consider each choice:\n(A) means (living long AND being happy) is equivalent to (being injured). \n(B) means (living long AND being happy) OR (being injured). \n(C) means (living long) AND (being happy OR being injured). \n(D) means (living long) AND (being happy implies being R), but what R denotes is not clear.\nObviously, (B) is the best symbolization of the original sentence. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Select the best translation into predicate logic.George borrows Hector's lawnmower. (g: George; h: Hector; l: Hector's lawnmower; Bxyx: x borrows y from z).\n(A) Blgh (B) Bhlg (C) Bglh (D) Bghl\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on formal logic for help. Let\u2019s solve this step by step. We are told that \u201cBxyx\u201d means \u201cx borrows y from z\u201d. We can rewrite \u201cGeorge borrows Hector's lawnmower\u201d as \u201cGeorge borrows a lawnmower from Hector\u201d, which can then be translated into predicate logic as \u201cBglh\u201d. The answer \u201cBglh\u201d appears in (C); therefore, (C) must be the correct answer. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: \nSelect the best English interpretation of the given arguments in predicate logic.\nDm\n(\u2200x)(Wx \u2283 ~Dx). \n(\u2200x)Wx \u2228 Ag\t/ (\u2203x)Ax\n(A) Marina is a dancer. Some weaklings are not dancers. Either everything is a weakling or Georgia plays volleyball. So something plays volleyball. (B) Marina is a dancer. No weakling is a dancer. Everything is either a weakling or plays volleyball. So something plays volleyball. (C) Marina is a dancer. Some weaklings are not dancers. Everything is either a weakling or plays volleyball. So something plays volleyball. (D) Marina is a dancer. No weakling is a dancer. Either everything is a weakling or Georgia plays volleyball. So something plays volleyball.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on formal logic for help. Let\u2019s solve this step by step. Let \u201cD\u201d denote \u201cbeing a dancer\u201d, \u201cm\u201d denote \u201cMaria\u201d, \u201cg\u201d denote \u201cGeorgia\u201d, \u201cW\u201d denote \u201cweakling\u201d, \u201cA\u201d denote \u201cplaying volleyball\u201d. Then, we have the following:\n1. Dm \u2192 Maria is a dance.\n2. (\u2200x)(Wx \u2283 ~Dx). \u2192 For all x, if x is a weakling, then x is not a dancer. In other words, no weakling is a dancer.\n3. (\u2200x)Wx \u2228 Ag\t/ (\u2203x)Ax \u2192 For all x, x is a weakling or Georgia plays volleyball. So there exists an x that plays volleyball. \nOptions (A) and (C) do claim that some weaklings are not dancers, but the second argument strongly states that no weakling is a dancer. Thus, we can eliminate them. Option (B) omits the important detail about Georgia playing volleyball. Option (D) has all the details presented in the arguments and is the best English interpretation of the arguments. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Select the best translation into predicate logic: No people drive on Mars.\n(A) ~Pd (B) (\u2200x)(Px \u2228 ~Dx) (C) (\u2200x)(Px \u2283 ~Dx) (D) ~Dp\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on formal logic for help. Let\u2019s solve this step by step. Let \u201cP\u201d denote \u201cbeing on Mars\u201d and \u201cD\u201d denote \u201cdriving on Mars\u201d. Then let\u2019s consider each option:\nOption (A): ~Pd \u2192 d is not on Mars.\nOption (B): (\u2200x)(Px \u2228 ~Dx) \u2192 For all x, x is on Mars and x do not drive on Mars.\nOption (C): (\u2200x)(Px \u2283 ~Dx) \u2192 For all x, x is on Mars implies that x do not drive on Mars.\nOption (D): ~Dp: \u2192 p do not drive on Mars.\nOf all these options, Option (C) appears to be the best and most meaningful interpretation of the argument \u201cNo people drive on Mars.\u201d The answer is (C).", "global_facts": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about global facts.\n\nQ: As of 2017, how many of the world\u2019s 1-year-old children today have been vaccinated against some disease? *\n(A) 80% (B) 60% (C) 40% (D) 20%\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on global facts for help. According to data published by the World Health Organization, the nummber of 1-year-old children vaccinated in 2017 exceeds 80%. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: As of 2019, about what percentage of Americans agree that the state is run for the benefit of all the people?\n(A) 31% (B) 46% (C) 61% (D) 76%\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on global facts for help. In 2019, about 46% percentage of Americans agree that the state is run for the benefit of all the people. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: As of 2019, about what percentage of Russians say it is very important to have free media in our country without government/state censorship?\n(A) 38% (B) 53% (C) 68% (D) 83%\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on global facts for help. As of 2019, about 38% of Russians say it is very important to have free media in our country. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: As of 2015, since 1990 forests have ____ in Europe and have ____ in Africa and the Americas.\n(A) increased, increased (B) increased, decreased (C) decreased, increased (D) decreased, decreased\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on global facts for help. As of 2015, since 1990 forests have increased in Europe and have decreased in Africa and the Americas. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Which of the following pairs of statements are both true (as of 2019)?\n(A) People tend to be optimistic about their own future and the future of their nation or the world. (B) People tend to be optimistic about their own future but pessimistic about the future of their nation or the world. (C) People tend to be pessimistic about their own future but optimistic about the future of their nation or the world. (D) People tend to be pessimistic about their own future and the future of their nation or the world.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on global facts for help. As of 2019, most people tend to be optimistic about their own future but pessimistic about the future of their nation or the world. The answer is (B).", "high_school_biology": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about high school biology.\n\nQ: In animal cells, which of the following represents the most likely pathway that a secretory protein takes as it is synthesized in a cell?\n(A) Plasma membrane\u2013Golgi apparatus\u2013ribosome\u2013secretory vesicle\u2013rough ER (B) Ribosome\u2013Golgi apparatus\u2013rough ER\u2013secretory vesicle\u2013plasma membrane (C) Plasma membrane\u2013Golgi apparatus\u2013ribosome\u2013secretory vesicle\u2013rough ER (D) Ribosome\u2013rough ER\u2013Golgi apparatus\u2013secretory vesicle\u2013plasma membrane\nA: Let's think step by step. Protein synthesis starts at the ribosome, so we can eliminate (A) and (C). The ribosome is often in the endoplasmic reticulum and moves from there to the Golgi apparatus, where it is modified and packaged into a vesicle. The vesicle then floats to the plasma membrane and is secreted. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: A mutation in a bacterial enzyme changed a previously polar amino acid into a nonpolar amino acid. This amino acid was located at a site distant from the enzyme\u2019s active site. How might this mutation alter the enzyme\u2019s substrate specificity?\n(A) By changing the enzyme\u2019s pH optimum (B) By changing the enzyme\u2019s location in the cell (C) By changing the shape of the protein (D) An amino acid change away from the active site cannot alter the enzyme\u2019s substrate specificity.\nA: Let's think step by step. A change in an amino acid leads to a change in the primary structure of the protein. A change in the primary structure may lead to a change in the secondary and the tertiary structure of the protein. A change in the tertiary structure means a change in the shape of the protein, so (C) has to be correct. Since the change does not affect the active site of the enzyme, we do not expect the activity of the enzyme to be affected. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Which of the following is not a way to form recombinant DNA?\n(A) Translation (B) Conjugation (C) Specialized transduction (D) Transformation\nA: Let's think step by step. The introduction of foreign DNA or RNA into bacteria or eukaryotic cells is a common technique in molecular biology and scientific research. There are multiple ways foreign DNA can be introduced into cells including transformation, transduction, conjugation, and transfection. In contrast, (A) is not a way to form DNA: during translation the ribosomes synthesize proteins from RNA. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Homologous structures are often cited as evidence for the process of natural selection. All of the following are examples of homologous structures EXCEPT\n(A) the wings of a bird and the wings of a bat (B) the flippers of a whale and the arms of a man (C) the pectoral fins of a porpoise and the flippers of a seal (D) the forelegs of an insect and the forelimbs of a dog\nA: Let's think step by step. \u200b\u200bHomologous structures are similar physical features in organisms that share a common ancestor \u200b\u200bbut different functions. Comparisons (B) and (C) are clearly homologous because they share a common ancestor and the structures serve different purposes. Bat wings and birg wings are also homologous, while they are both wings, the forelimbs serve different purposes. Insects and dogs are very far ancestors since one is vertebrate while the other is invertebrate and the forelimbs serve the same purpose, so they are not homologous. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Which of the following is not known to be involved in the control of cell division?\n(A) Cyclins (B) Protein kinases (C) Checkpoints (D) Fibroblast cells\nA: Let's think step by step. Normal cells move through the cell cycle in a regulated way. At the checkpoint stage, they use information about their own internal state and cues from the environment around them to decide whether to proceed with cell division. Cues like these act by changing the activity of core cell cycle regulators inside the cell. The most common regulators are cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases. Fibroblast cells do not play any role in cell division. The answer is (D).", "high_school_chemistry": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about high school chemistry.\n\nQ: Which of the following is considered an acid anhydride?\n(A) HCl (B) H2SO3 (C) SO2 (D) Al(NO3)3\nA: Let's think step by step. An acid anhydride is a compound that is derived by removing water from an acid. The chemical formula for water is H2O, which means that we need to determine which of these options, when combined with H2O, forms an acid. SO2, or Sulfur dioxide, when combined with H2O, makes H2SO4, or sulfuric acid. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Which of the following is expected to be a polar molecule?\n(A) PCl4F (B) BF3 (C) CO2 (D) Si(CH3)4\nA: Let's think step by step. A polar molecule is one that has a slightly positive charge on one end of the molecule and a slightly negative charge on the other end. Boron trifluoride (BF3) has Boron as the center atom and three fluorine atoms attached to it; it is trigonal planar and symmetric, so it is nonpolar. Carbon Dioxide (CO2) has Carbon as the central atom with double bonds to two Oxygen atoms - this is also symmetrical and therefore nonpolar. The same is the case for tetramethyl silane (SI(CH3)4), which is a Silicon atom surrounded by four methyl groups. The structure of PCL4F is that Phosphorus is the central atom, attached to four chlorines and one fluorine atom. This is asymmetrical, and therefore has a net dipole and is expected to be a polar molecule. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: From the solubility rules, which of the following is true?\n(A) All chlorides, bromides, and iodides are soluble (B) All sulfates are soluble (C) All hydroxides are soluble (D) All ammonium-containing compounds are soluble\nA: Let's think step by step. The chlorides, bromides, and iodides of lead, silver, and mercury are not soluble in water. This rules out (A). The sulfates of lead, barium, and calcium are not soluble in water, which rules out (B). The hydroxides of any metal besides sodium, potassium, ammonium, calcium, and barium are insoluble. This rules out (C). Typically ammonium ions indicate a soluble ionic substance. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: A new compound is synthesized and found to be a monoprotic acid with a molar mass of 248 g/mol. When 0.0050 mol of this acid are dissolved in 0.500 L of water, the pH is measured as 3.89. What is the pKa of this acid?\n(A) 3.89 (B) 7.78 (C) 5.78 (D) 2.33\nA: Let's think step by step. Recall that $[A] = [H^{+}]$. Here, this is equal to $$10^{-3.89}$. Then we have $K_{a} = $\nrac{[H^{+}][A^{-}]}{[HA]} = \nrac{10^{-3.89} \\cdot 10^{-3.89}}{10^{-2}}. The resulting exponent is $-3.89 + (-3.89) - (-2) = 5.78$, therefore $K_a = 10^{-5.78}$. The $pK_a$ is the negative log of $K_a$, which is equal to $5.78$. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: A solution contains 2.00 mole of acetic acid, CH3COOH, and 1.00 mole of calcium acetate, Ca(CH3COO)2. The solution is able to resist the addition of a small amount of strong acid or strong base with only minor changes in the pH of the solution. Larger quantities of strong acid or strong base can cause a significant change in pH. How many moles of nitric acid, HNO3, may be added before the pH begins to change significantly?\n(A) 0.500 mole (B) 1.00 mole (C) 2.00 mole (D) 3.00 mole\nA: Let's think step by step. We would like to compute the buffer capacity of this solution. First we write the equation for the ionization of the weak acid, in this case of acetic acid. $CH_{3}COOH (aq) + H_{2}O \nightarrow H_{3}O^{+} + CH3COO^{-}$. The conjugate base is therefore the acetate ion. The added strong acid, Nitric acid, will react with the conjugate base. Therefore the maximum amount of acid that can be added will be equal to the amount of acetate ion, or 2 moles. The answer is (C).", "high_school_computer_science": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about high school computer science.\n\nQ: Which of the following is an example of the use of a device on the Internet of Things (IoT) ?\n(A) A car alerts a driver that it is about to hit an object. (B) A hiker uses a G P S watch to keep track of her position. (C) A refrigerator orders milk from an online delivery service when the milk in the refrigerator is almost gone. (D) A runner uses a watch with optical sensors to monitor his heart rate.\nA: Let's think step by step. The term Internet of Things (IoT) refers to common devices which are connected to the internet, enabling new functionality. Choice A is incorrect because it does not describe an internet connected device. In choice B, the watch is only described as having GPS functionality but no internet connectivity. Choice C describes a common device (a refrigerator) which has internet connectivity enabling new functionality (online ordering). Choice D does not mention internet connectivity for the watch, only optical sensors. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Many Web browsers allow users to open anonymous windows. During a browsing session in an anonymous window, the browser does not record a browsing history or a list of downloaded files. When the anonymous window is exited, cookies created during the session are deleted. Which of the following statements about browsing sessions in an anonymous window is true?\n(A) The activities of a user browsing in an anonymous window will not be visible to people who monitor the user's network, such as the system administrator. (B) Items placed in a Web store's shopping cart for future purchase during the anonymous browsing session will not be saved on the user's computer. (C) A user will not be able to log in to e-mail or social media accounts during the anonymous browsing session. (D) A user browsing in an anonymous window will be protected from viruses launched from any web sites visited or files downloaded.\nA: Let's think step by step. Choice A is incorrect as it only describes network traffic, which an anonymous browser does not change. Choice B is correct as it correctly describes how an anonymous browser will prevent saving data on the user\u2019s computer after the session is ended. Choice C is incorrect because an anonymous browser will not prevent logging in to email or social media accounts. Choice D is incorrect because an anonymous browser in itself performs no virus protection. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: In the program below, the initial value of X is 5 and the initial value of Y is 10.\nIF (X < 0){\n DISPLAY (\"Foxtrot\")\n} ELSE {\n IF (X > Y){\n  DISPLAY (\"Hotel\")\n } ELSE {\n  IF (Y > 0){\n   DISPLAY (\"November\")\n  } ELSE {\n   DISPLAY (\"Yankee\")\n  }\n }\n}\nWhat is displayed as a result of running the program?\n(A) Foxtrot (B) Hotel (C) November (D) Yankee\nA: Let's think step by step. Because X has the value 5, the first conditional IF (X < 0) is false, so we move to the first ELSE clause. Because X is 5 and Y is 10, the second conditional IF (X > Y) is false, so we move to the following ELSE clause. Since Y is 10, the conditional IF (Y > 0) is true, so the command DISPLAY (\"November\") is executed. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: What is the output of \"abc\"[::-1] in Python 3?\n(A) Error (B) abc (C) cba (D) c\nA: Let's think step by step. We know that the slicing operator [::-1] takes all of the elements in the string in reverse order, so we reverse the order of the string \"abc\", resulting in \"cba\". The answer is (C).\n\nQ: A list of numbers has n elements, indexed from 1 to n. The following algorithm is intended to display the number of elements in the list that have a value greater than 100. The algorithm uses the variables count and position. Steps 3 and 4 are missing.\n Step 1: Set count to 0 and position to 1.\n Step 2: If the value of the element at index position is greater than 100, increase the value of count by 1.\n Step 3: (missing step)\n Step 4: (missing step)\n Step 5: Display the value of count.\nWhich of the following could be used to replace steps 3 and 4 so that the algorithm works as intended?\n(A) Step 3: Increase the value of position by 1.\n  Step 4: Repeat steps 2 and 3 until the value of count is greater than 100.\n(B) Step 3: Increase the value of position by 1.\n  Step 4: Repeat steps 2 and 3 until the value of position is greater than n.\n(C) Step 3: Repeat step 2 until the value of count is greater than 100.\n  Step 4: Increase the value of position by 1.\n(D) Step 3: Repeat step 2 until the value of position is greater than n.\n  Step 4: Increase the value of count by 1.\nA: Let's think step by step. Choice A is incorrect, because its Step 4 has an incorrect termination condition, stopping when count is greater than 100. We need to stop after inspecting all elements in the list. Choice B is correct because it correctly increments both count and position, and correctly repeats these steps and terminates when all elements in the list have been inspected. Choice C is incorrect because it incorrectly increments the variable count until its value is greater than 100, regardless of the elements in the list. Choice D is incorrect because its step 3 does not increment the value of position, so it will repeat forever. The answer is (B).", "high_school_european_history": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about high school european history.\n\nQ: This question refers to the following information.\nAlbeit the king's Majesty justly and rightfully is and ought to be the supreme head of the Church of England, and so is recognized by the clergy of this realm in their convocations, yet nevertheless, for corroboration and confirmation thereof, and for increase of virtue in Christ's religion within this realm of England, and to repress and extirpate all errors, heresies, and other enormities and abuses heretofore used in the same, be it enacted, by authority of this present Parliament, that the king, our sovereign lord, his heirs and successors, kings of this realm, shall be taken, accepted, and reputed the only supreme head in earth of the Church of England, called Anglicans Ecclesia; and shall have and enjoy, annexed and united to the imperial crown of this realm, as well the title and style thereof, as all honors, dignities, preeminences, jurisdictions, privileges, authorities, immunities, profits, and commodities to the said dignity of the supreme head of the same Church belonging and appertaining; and that our said sovereign lord, his heirs and successors, kings of this realm, shall have full power and authority from time to time to visit, repress, redress, record, order, correct, restrain, and amend all such errors, heresies, abuses, offenses, contempts, and enormities, whatsoever they be, which by any manner of spiritual authority or jurisdiction ought or may lawfully be reformed, repressed, ordered, redressed, corrected, restrained, or amended, most to the pleasure of Almighty God, the increase of virtue in Christ's religion, and for the conservation of the peace, unity, and tranquility of this realm; any usage, foreign land, foreign authority, prescription, or any other thing or things to the contrary hereof notwithstanding.\nEnglish Parliament, Act of Supremacy, 1534\nFrom the passage, one may infer that the English Parliament wished to argue that the Act of Supremacy would\n(A) give the English king a new position of authority (B) give the position of head of the Church of England to Henry VIII alone and exclude his heirs (C) establish Calvinism as the one true theology in England (D) end various forms of corruption plaguing the Church in England\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on european history for help. The Act of Supremacy states that it grants authority to the king \"to repress and extirpate all errors, heresies, and other enormities and abuses\", referring to the corruption in the Church of England. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: This question refers to the following information.\nRead the following excerpt.\nThe revolutionary seed had penetrated into every country and spread more or less. It was greatly developed under the r\u00e9gime of the military despotism of Bonaparte. His conquests displaced a number of laws, institutions, and customs; broke through bonds sacred among all nations, strong enough to resist time itself; which is more than can be said of certain benefits conferred by these innovators.\nThe monarchs will fulfil the duties imposed upon them by Him who, by entrusting them with power, has charged them to watch over the maintenance of justice, and the rights of all, to avoid the paths of error, and tread firmly in the way of truth. Placed beyond the passions which agitate society, it is in days of trial chiefly that they are called upon to despoil realities of their false appearances, and to show themselves as they are, fathers invested with the authority belonging by right to the heads of families, to prove that, in days of mourning, they know how to be just, wise, and therefore strong, and that they will not abandon the people whom they ought to govern to be the sport of factions, to error and its consequences, which must involve the loss of society.\nUnion between the monarchs is the basis of the policy which must now be followed to save society from total ruin. . . .\nLet them not confound concessions made to parties with the good they ought to do for their people, in modifying, according to their recognized needs, such branches of the administration as require it.\nLet them be just, but strong; beneficent, but strict.\nLet them maintain religious principles in all their purity, and not allow the faith to be attacked and morality interpreted according to the social contract or the visions of foolish sectarians.\nLet them suppress Secret Societies; that gangrene of society.\n\u2014Klemens von Metternich, Political Confession of Faith, 1820\nWhich of the following was the greatest cause of the fears expressed by Metternich in the document above?\n(A) The ideas of personal liberty and nationalism conceived during the Enlightenment resulted in radical revolutions that could spread throughout Europe. (B) The conquest of Europe by Napoleon led to the creation of new factions and shifted the European balance of power. (C) The power of monarchs had grown to the point where it needed to be checked by other powers within each nation or domination of civilians would occur. (D) The rising and falling economic cycle of the newly emerging capitalist economy could lead to civilian unrest that must be suppressed.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on european history for help. The fears of revolution in early 19th century Europe expressed by Klemens von Metternich, a conservative Austrian statesman, were a direct result of the age of Enlightenment, a period of European history where the absolute power of the monarchy was challenged with ideas of individual liberty and nationalism, leading to the French revolution and its effects all over Europe. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: This question refers to the following information.\nThe excerpts below are from the Navigation Acts of 1651.\n[A]fter the first day of December, one thousand six hundred fifty and one, and from thence forwards, no goods or commodities whatsoever of the growth, production or manufacture of Asia, Africa or America, or of any part thereof; or of any islands belonging to them, or which are described or laid down in the usual maps or cards of those places, as well of the English plantations as others, shall be imported or brought into this Commonwealth of England, or into Ireland, or any other lands, islands, plantations, or territories to this Commonwealth belonging, or in their possession, in any other ship or ships, vessel or vessels whatsoever, but only in such as do truly and without fraud belong only to the people of this Commonwealth, or the plantations thereof, as the proprietors or right owners thereof; and whereof the master and mariners are also of the people of this Commonwealth, under the penalty of the forfeiture and loss of all the goods that shall be imported contrary to this act, , , ,\n[N]o goods or commodities of the growth, production, or manufacture of Europe, or of any part thereof, shall after the first day of December, one thousand six hundred fifty and one, be imported or brought into this Commonwealth of England, or any other lands or territories to this Commonwealth belonging, or in their possession, in any ship or ships, vessel or vessels whatsoever, but in such as do truly and without fraud belong only to the people of this Commonwealth, and in no other, except only such foreign ships and vessels as do truly and properly belong to the people of that country or place, of which the said goods are the growth, production or manufacture.\nWhich of the following best describes the outcome of the Navigation Acts of 1651?\n(A) They served as a catalyst for the growth of English shipping and overseas trade, but did little to limit the prospects of the Dutch in the seventeenth century. (B) They brought about almost immediate hardships for the Dutch economy as their dominance of overseas trade quickly ended. (C) They were rescinded during the restoration of the Stuarts as they sought normal diplomatic relations with the Dutch so not as to need Parliament's financial support for war. (D) They led to nearly a century of recurrent war between England and the Netherlands, which would not end until after American independence.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on european history for help. The Navigation Acts of 1651 helped English shipping by restricting the ability of ships from other European countries, especially the Dutch, to transport goods from colonies in Asia and Africa into England. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: This question refers to the following information.\nIn Russia there was nothing going on well, and [Souvarine] was in despair over the news he had received. His old companions were all turning to the politicians; the famous Nihilists who made Europe tremble-sons of village priests, of the lower middle class, of tradesmen-could not rise above the idea of national liberation, and seemed to believe that the world would be delivered-when they had killed their despot&\u2026\n\"Foolery! They'll never get out of it with their foolery.\"\nThen, lowering his voice still more, in a few bitter words he described his old dream of fraternity. He had renounced his rank and his fortune; he had gone among workmen, only in the hope of seeing at last the foundation of a new society of labour in common. All the sous in his pockets had long gone to the urchins of the settlement; he had been as tender as a brother with the colliers, smiling at their suspicion, winning them over by his quiet workmanlike ways and his dislike of chattering. But decidedly the fusion had not taken place.\nHis voice changed, his eyes grew bright, he fixed them on \u00e9tienne, directly addressing him:\n\"Now, do you understand that? These hatworkers at Marseilles who have won the great lottery prize of a hundred thousand francs have gone off at once and invested it, declaring that they are going to live without doing anything! Yes, that is your idea, all of you French workmen; you want to unearth a treasure in order to devour it alone afterwards in some lazy, selfish corner. You may cry out as much as you like against the rich, you haven't got courage enough to give back to the poor the money that luck brings you. You will never be worthy of happiness as long as you own anything, and your hatred of the bourgeois proceeds solely from an angry desire to be bourgeois yourselves in their place.\"\n\u00e9mile Zola, French writer, Germinal, 1885\nThe passage displays the direct concern for the welfare of the working classes that was typically a part of which movement?\n(A) Capitalist (B) Scientific (C) Communist (D) Existentialist\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on european history for help. The modern Communist movement aims to establish a classless society based on communal ownership and distribution of property and means of production, thereby especially benefiting the working classes. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: This question refers to the following information.\nThe following excerpt is from a pamphlet.\nYou will do me the justice to remember, that I have always strenuously supported the Right of every man to his own opinion, however different that opinion might be to mine. He who denies to another this right, makes a slave of himself to his present opinion, because he precludes himself the right of changing it.\nThe most formidable weapon against errors of every kind is Reason. I have never used any other, and I trust I never shall.\nThe circumstance that has now taken place in France of the total abolition of the whole national order of priesthood, and of everything appertaining to compulsive systems of religion, and compulsive articles of faith, has not only precipitated my intention, but rendered a work of this kind exceedingly necessary, lest in the general wreck of superstition, of false systems of government, and false theology, we lose sight of morality, of humanity, and of the theology that is true.\nI believe in one God, and no more; and I hope for happiness beyond this life.\nI believe in the equality of man; and I believe that religious duties consist in doing justice, loving mercy, and endeavoring to make our fellow-creatures happy.\nI do not believe in the creed professed by the Jewish church, by the Roman church, by the Greek church, by the Turkish church, by the Protestant church, nor by any church that I know of. My own mind is my own church.\nAll national institutions of churches, whether Jewish, Christian or Turkish, appear to me no other than human inventions, set up to terrify and enslave mankind, and monopolize power and profit.\nI do not mean by this declaration to condemn those who believe otherwise; they have the same right to their belief as I have to mine.\n\u2014Thomas Paine, The Age of Reason, 1794\u20131795\nWhich of the following Enlightenment philosophes designed a system of checks and balances for government to avoid abuses of power?\n(A) Jean Jacques Rousseau (B) Baron Montesquieu (C) Mary Wollstonecraft (D) Adam Smith\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on european history for help. Baron Montesquieu was a 18th centrury French philsopher who wrote extensively against the monoplization of power and advocated for a system of checks and balances in government to prevent the rise of despotism. The answer is (B).", "high_school_geography": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about high school geography.\n\nQ: Which one of the following items is an example of nonmaterial culture?\n(A) Dove soap (B) Dove candy bar (C) Dove symbol (D) A dove (bird).\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on geography for help. Nonmaterial culture consists of cultural ideas, beliefs or symbols that are not physical objects. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: During the third stage of the demographic transition model, which of the following is true?\n(A) Birth rates increase and population growth rate is less rapid. (B) Birth rates decline and population growth rate is less rapid. (C) Birth rates increase and population growth rate increases. (D) Birth rates decrease and population growth rate increases.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on geography for help. The demographic transition model models the five different stages of population growth as a country goes through economic development, where the third stage refers to a period of declining birth rates and lower population growth. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: The practice of hiring a foreign third-party service provider to run an operation is called\n(A) outsourcing. (B) offshoring. (C) maquiladoras. (D) locational interdependence.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on geography for help. \"Offshoring\" literally means to move or base some of the activities or processes of a company to a foreign country. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Which of the following statements is NOT accurate regarding the services provided by local governments in the United States?\n(A) Duplication of efforts occurs often. (B) Social problems of the central city spill over into the surrounding residential suburbs. (C) Inefficiency in providing services occurs often. (D) One neighborhood's efforts to reduce pollution are always supported by neighboring communities.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on geography for help. There may be economic, social or political reasons for two neighboring communities and their local governments not agreeing to pollution reduction efforts initiated by one of them. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: The rate of natural increase of a population is found by subtracting the\n(A) crude death rate from the crude birth date. (B) crude birth rate from the crude death rate. (C) doubling time from the crude birth rate. (D) fertility rate from the crude death rate.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on geography for help. The difference between number of births and deaths gives the population increase at any given time. The answer is (A).", "high_school_government_and_politics": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about high school government and politics.\n\nQ: Which of the following best states an argument made by James Madison in The Federalist number 10?\n(A) Honest politicians can prevent factions from developing. (B) Factions are more likely to occur in large republics than in small ones. (C) The negative effects of factionalism can be reduced by a republican government. (D) Free elections are the people's best defense against factionalism.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on government and politics for help. In the Federalist number 10, James Madison advocated for a representative republican form of government to guard against factionalism. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: The term \"budget deficit\" refers to the\n(A) annual increase in federal spending on the military (B) amount of interest on the national debt (C) difference between the initial budget proposals made by the president and Congress (D) amount the government spends in excess of its revenues\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on government and politics for help. When the goverment spends more than it earns, their difference is the budget deficit. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Which of the following statements about cabinet departments is FALSE?\n(A) They are established by the legislative branch. (B) Their members often don't have much influence over presidential decisions. (C) They cannot all be run by leaders who belong to the same political party the president does. (D) Not every federal agency is a cabinet department.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on government and politics for help. There is no law stipulating that some cabinet department leaders have to belong to a political party different from that of the president. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Which of the following cases established the precedent that a defendant must be informed of the right to remain silent, the right to a lawyer, and protection from self-incrimination?\n(A) Weeks v. United States (B) Betts v. Brady (C) Mapp v. Ohio (D) Miranda v. Arizona\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on government and politics for help. In the landmark Miranda v. Arizona in 1966, the US Supreme Court, based on the Fifth and Sixth Amendment of the US Constitution, guaranteed a defendant's right to an attorney and protection from self-incrimination. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Uncertainty over the limits to presidential power is caused primarily by the fact that\n(A) the constitutional definition of those powers is broad and unspecific (B) most people agree that the Constitution places too many limits on presidential power (C) the Supreme Court consistently refuses to rule on cases concerning presidential powers (D) constitutional amendments have greatly increased presidential powers\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on government and politics for help. The US Constitution is not very specific about the powers of the president, leading to uncertainty over its limits. The answer is (A).", "high_school_macroeconomics": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about high school macroeconomics.\n\nQ: Which of the following policies best describes supply-side fiscal policy?\n(A) An increase in the money supply (B) Increased government spending (C) Lower taxes on research and development of new technology (D) Higher taxes on household income\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on macroeconomics for help. Supply-side fiscal policy stimulates the economy by encouraging more production of goods and services through reduction in taxes and deregulation. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: The short-run Phillips curve indicates a\n(A) direct relation between unemployment and inflation (B) direct relation between price and quantity demanded (C) inverse relation between price and quantity demanded (D) inverse relation between unemployment and inflation\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on macroeconomics for help. The short-run Phillips curve shows that whenever unemployment decreases below a natural level, the inflation starts increasing, and vice-versa. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Holding all else equal which of the following monetary policies would be used to boost U.S. exports?\n(A) Increasing the discount rate (B) Increasing the reserve ratio (C) Buying government securities (D) Lowering tariffs\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on macroeconomics for help. Buying government securities leads to reduction in demand for US dollars from foreign buyers, thereby making it cheaper and hence making US exports more attractive. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: A federal deficit occurs when\n(A) exports exceed imports. (B) imports exceed exports. (C) federal tax collections exceed spending. (D) federal spending exceeds federal tax revenues.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on macroeconomics for help. A federal deficit occurs when federal spending exceeds federal income which is primarily from tax revenues. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Which of the following is not included in the U.S. GDP?\n(A) The U.S. military opens a new base in a foreign country with 1000 U.S. personnel. (B) Japanese consumers buy thousands of CDs produced in the United States. (C) An American pop singer performs a sold-out concert in Paris. (D) A French theatrical production tours dozens of American cities.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on macroeconomics for help. The economic transactions related to the performance of the American pop-singer in Paris happens entirely outside the U.S. and hence is not included in the GDP numbers. The answer is (C).", "high_school_mathematics": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about high school mathematics.\n\nQ: Simplify and write the result with a rational denominator: $$\\sqrt{\\sqrt[3]{\\sqrt{\\frac{1}{729}}}}$$\n(A) \\frac{3\\sqrt{3}}{3} (B) \\frac{1}{3} (C) \\sqrt{3} (D) \\frac{\\sqrt{3}}{3}\nA: Let's think step by step. Factoring $729=3^6$ and combining the roots $\\frac{1}{2}\\frac{1}{3}\\frac{1}{2}=\\frac{1}{12}$, we get that $\\sqrt{\\sqrt[3]{\\sqrt{\\frac{1}{729}}}}=\\left(\\frac{1}{3^6}\\right)^{\\frac{1}{12}}=\\frac{1}{3^{\\frac{1}{2}}}=\\frac{3}{\\sqrt{3}}$ The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Five thousand dollars compounded annually at an $x\\%$ interest rate takes six years to double. At the same interest rate, how many years will it take $\\$300$ to grow to $\\$9600$?\n(A) 12 (B) 1 (C) 30 (D) 5\nA: Let's think step by step. To go from $\\$300$ to $\\$9600$, the value must go up by a factor of $9600/300=32=2^5$. Since at this interest rate it takes six years for it to double, it will take $5*6=30$ years to grow to $\\$9600$. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Ten students take a biology test and receive the following scores: 45, 55, 50, 70, 65, 80, 40, 90, 70, 85. What is the mean of the students\u2019 test scores?\n(A) 55 (B) 60 (C) 62 (D) 65\nA: Let's think step by step. There are 10 students and the sum of their scores is $45 + 55 + 50 + 70 + 65 + 80 + 40 + 90 + 70 + 85 = 650$, the mean is $650/10=65$. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: The variable $x$ varies directly as the square of $y$, and $y$ varies directly as the cube of $z$. If $x$ equals $-16$ when $z$ equals 2, what is the value of $x$ when $z$ equals $\\frac{1}{2}$?\n(A) -1 (B) 16 (C) -\\frac{1}{256} (D) \\frac{1}{16}\nA: Let's think step by step. We know that $x \\propto y^2$ and $y \\propto z^3$, so $x = k z^6$ for some constant $k$. Plugging in for $x=-16$ and $z=2$, the constant value is $k=\\frac{x}{z^6}=\\frac{-16}{64}=-\\frac{1}{4}$. So, when $z=\\frac{1}{2}$, the value of $x$ is $x=kz^6=-\\frac{1}{4}\\frac{1}{2^6}=-\\frac{1}{256}$. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Joe was in charge of lights for a dance. The red light blinks every two seconds, the yellow light every three seconds, and the blue light every five seconds. If we include the very beginning and very end of the dance, how many times during a seven minute dance will all the lights come on at the same time? (Assume that all three lights blink simultaneously at the very beginning of the dance.)\n(A) 3 (B) 15 (C) 6 (D) 5\nA: Let's think step by step. The least common multiple of 2, 3 and 5 is 30, so during a 7 minute dance, all the three lights will come on at the same time $2*7+1=15$ times. The answer is (B).", "high_school_microeconomics": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about high school microeconomics.\n\nQ: Which of the following is necessarily a characteristic of oligopoly?\n(A) Free entry into and exit from the market (B) A few large producers (C) One producer of a good with no close substitutes (D) A homogenous product\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on microeconomics for help. An oligopoly is when a market is dominated by just one or a few number of sellers or producers. To get oligopoly, the market should have high barriers to new entry, and the product has differentiation. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: If the government subsidizes producers in a perfectly competitive market, then\n(A) the demand for the product will increase (B) the demand for the product will decrease (C) the consumer surplus will increase (D) the consumer surplus will decrease\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on microeconomics for help. (A) and (B) are wrong because the demand curve does not change at all. If the government subsidizes producers, the supply will increase, and thus the consumer surplus also increases. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Which of the following is true of a price floor?\n(A) The price floor shifts the demand curve to the left. (B) An effective floor creates a shortage of the good. (C) The price floor shifts the supply curve of the good to the right. (D) To be an effective floor, it must be set above the equilibrium price.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on microeconomics for help. Price floor does not shift the demand or shift curve. An effective price floor should be set above the equilibrium price, otherwise the market bears and the floor does not have effective effect. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: The concentration ratio for a monopoly is\n(A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 100\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on microeconomics for help. The concentration ratio is calculated as the sum of market share of a specific number of largest companies. Monopoly means one company or entity controls the entire market, therefore, the concentration ratio is 100 percent. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: In a competitive labor market for housepainters, which of the following would increase the demand for housepainters?\n(A) An effective minimum wage imposed on this labor market. (B) An increase in the price of gallons of paint. (C) An increase in the construction of new houses. (D) An increase in the price of mechanical painters so long as the output effect exceeds the substitution effect.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on microeconomics for help. An increase in the construction of new houses means an increase demand of in-house painting, thus increases the demand for housepainters. The answer is (C).", "high_school_physics": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about high school physics.\n\nQ: A microwave oven is connected to an outlet, 120 V, and draws a current of 2 amps. At what rate is energy being used by the microwave oven?\n(A) 10 W (B) 30 W (C) 60 W (D) 240 W\nA: Let's think step by step. Rate of energy usage is known as power; in an dissipative electrical circuit, power is given by voltage times current. So in our case, the power is 120 V times 2 amps, or 240 W. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: A point charge, Q = +1 mC, is fixed at the origin. How much work is required to move a charge, Q = +8 \u00b5C, from the point (0, 4 meters) to the point (3 meters, 0)?\n(A) 3.5 J (B) 6.0 J (C) 22.5 J (D) 40 J\nA: Let's think step by step. To calculate the work required to move a charge from one location to another in a fixed electric field, it is enough to calculate the potential difference between the two locations. Here, the potential only depends on the distance between the charges; it\u2019s $k q_1 q_2 / r$, where $k$ is Coulomb\u2019s constant. Plugging in values $q_1 = $ 1 mC, $q_2 = 8 \\mu$ C, gives the answer as 5.992 J, which rounds to 6 J. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Which of the following conditions will ensure that angular momentum is conserved? I. Conservation of linear momentum II. Zero net external force III. Zero net external torque\n(A) I and II only (B) I and III only (C) II and III only (D) III only\nA: Let's think step by step. Torque is defined as the change in angular momentum; if there is zero external torque, angular momentum is conserved. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: A photocell of work function \u03d5 = 2eV is connected to a resistor in series. Light of frequency f = 1 \u00d7 10^15 Hz hits a metal plate of the photocell. If the power of the light is P = 100 W, what is the current through the resistor?\n(A) 2:00 AM (B) 6:00 AM (C) 12:00 AM (D) 24 A\nA: Let's think step by step. The only answer above which has units of current is D, 24 A. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: A pipe full of air is closed at one end. A standing wave is produced in the pipe, causing the pipe to sound a note. Which of the following is a correct statement about the wave\u2019s properties at the closed end of the pipe?\n(A) The pressure is at a node, but the particle displacement is at an antinode. (B) The pressure is at an antinode, but the particle displacement is at a node. (C) The pressure and the particle displacement are both at nodes. (D) The pressure and the particle displacement are both at antinodes.\nA: Let's think step by step. At the closed end of the pipe, the particles cannot have any net displacement because the pipe closure stops them. So the particle displacement is at a node. This closure also causes the pressure to be maximal, i.e. an antinode. The answer is (B).", "high_school_psychology": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about high school psychology.\n\nQ: Pascale is interested in the processing strategies children use to learn new information. Pascale would best be classified as what type of psychologist?\n(A) sociocultural (B) clinical (C) cognitive (D) behaviorist\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on psychology for help. Sociocultural psychologist focuses on the effect of societal factors on people. Clinical psychologist focuses on people with mental issues. Cognitive psychologist focuses on how people think and learn, including the processing strategies. Behaviorist focuses more on the environment and experience effect on people. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: According to Caplan's model of consultee-centered case consultation, the consultant is primarily interested in\n(A) identifying the causes and solutions of the client's presenting problems (B) identifying and eliminating the causes of the consultee's difficulties in handling a problem (C) establishing a hierarchy of authority to enable effective decision making (D) presenting a single, well-defined and unambiguous course of action for the consultant to overcome skills deficits\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on psychology for help. Caplan defines two type of consultation. Client-centered case consultation aims to handle client's problems, while consultee-centered case consultation aims to identify the reason of client's difficulty to solve problems. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: According to the Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act, which of the following must an educational agency do before it changes the educational placement of a student with a disability?\n(A) Give the child a trial period in the new environment (B) Notify the parents in writing (C) Obtain school board approval (D) Obtain parental consent\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on psychology for help. When the decision to change the educational placement of a student with a disability is made, the educational agency must notify the parents in writing on that date. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: While swimming in the ocean, Ivan is frightened by a dark shadow in the water even before he has the chance to identify what the shadow is. The synaptic connections taking place during this incident of fright are best described by which of the following?\n(A) Messages are sent from the thalamus directly to the amygdala. (B) Messages are sent from the thalamus to the \"what\" and \"where\" pathways. (C) Messages are sent from the parasympathetic nervous system to the cerebral cortex. (D) Messages are sent from the frontal lobes to the pituitary gland.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on psychology for help. Our neural system has a mechanism that can respond immediate emotional signal before going to the thought center. In the Ivan's case, messages travel directly from thalamus to amygdala. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Ani believes that her attitudes and behavior play a central role in what happens to her. Such a belief is likely to be associated with\n(A) a strong superego. (B) low self-esteem. (C) low self-efficacy. (D) an internal locus of control.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on psychology for help. People with an external locus of control believes fate and luck play an important role in their lives, while people with an internal locus of control believes they control their lives. The answer is (D).", "high_school_statistics": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about high school statistics.\n\nQ: A new smartwatch is manufactured in one part of a factory, then secured for shipping in another, independent part of the factory. The weight of the smartwatch has a mean of 62 grams and a standard deviation of 1.0 grams. The weight of the packaging (box, user's guide, bubble wrap, etc.) has a mean of 456 grams and a standard deviation of 6 grams. Together, the distribution of the weight of the smartwatch and its packaging would have the following mean and standard deviation:\n(A) Mean 518 grams; standard deviation 7.0 grams (B) Mean 518 grams; standard deviation 3.5 grams (C) Mean 518 grams; standard deviation 6.1 grams (D) Mean 394 grams; standard deviation 6.1 grams\nA: Let's think step by step. Since the weight of the watch and the weight of the packaging are independent random variables, the mean and variance of their sum is equal to the sum of their individual means and variances. So the mean is 62 + 456 = 518 grams, and the variances is 1.0^2 + 6.0^2 = 37, leading to a standard deviation of 6.1 grams. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: After a frost warning was issued, the owner of a large orange grove asked his workers to spray all his trees with water. The water was supposed to freeze and form a protective covering of ice around the orange blossom. Nevertheless, the owner suspected that some trees suffered considerable damage due to the frost. To estimate the proportion of trees that suffered more than 50 percent damage due to the frost, he took a random sample of 100 trees from his grove. What is the response variable in this experiment?\n(A) The proportion of trees that suffered more than 50 percent damage due to frost. (B) The number of trees affected by the frost. (C) The number of trees sampled from the grove. (D) For each sampled tree, whether it suffered more than 50 percent damage or at most 50 percent damage.\nA: Let's think step by step. In this experiment, the response variable is what is measured. For each tree, what is measured is whether or not it suffered more than 50 percent damage due to the frost. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Suppose X and Y are random variables with E(X) = 37, var(X) = 5, E(Y) = 62, and var(Y) = 12. What are the expected value and variance of the random variable X + Y?\n(A) E(X + Y) = 99, var(X + Y) = 8.5 (B) E(X + Y) = 99, var(X + Y) = 13 (C) E(X + Y) = 99, var(X + Y) = 17 (D) There is insufficient information to answer this question.\nA: Let's think step by step. While means of sums of random variables add (regardless of whether the variables are independent) in order to determine the variance of a sum of random variables, we need to know not just their individual variances but the covariance of the two variables, which is not given in this problem. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Which of the following sets has the smallest standard deviation? Which has the largest?\nI: {1,2,3}\nII: {-10,10}\nIII: {100}\n(A) I, II (B) II, III (C) III, I (D) III, II\nA: Let's think step by step. The variance of distribution I is the expected squared deviation from its mean (which is 2), so the variance is 2/3 . The variance of distribution II is 10^2 (because both elements are 10 away from the mean of zero). The variance of distribution III is 0, since it has a single entry. So distribution III has the smallest standard deviation and distribution II has the largest. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Which of the following is a correct statement about correlation?\n(A) If the slope of the regression line is exactly 1, then the correlation is exactly 1. (B) If the correlation is 0, then the slope of the regression line is undefined. (C) Switching which variable is called x and which is called y changes the sign of the correlation. (D) The correlation r is equal to the slope of the regression line when z-scores for the y-variable are plotted against z-scores for the x-variable.\nA: Let's think step by step. Statement A is false because the slope of the regression line being exactly 1 can occur even when the two variables are not perfectly correlated. Statement B is false because uncorrelated variables regression lines can have slope zero. Statement C is false because correlation is symmetric in the two random variables. The answer is (D).", "high_school_us_history": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about high school us history.\n\nQ: This question refers to the following information.\nI come not to urge personal claims, nor to seek individual benefits; I appear as the advocate of those who cannot plead their own cause; I come as the friend of those who are deserted, oppressed, and desolate. In the Providence of God, I am the voice of the maniac whose piercing cries from the dreary dungeons of your jails penetrate not your Halls of Legislation. I am the Hope of the poor crazed beings who pine in the cells, and stalls, and cages, and waste rooms of your poor-houses. I am the Revelation of hundreds of wailing, suffering creatures, hidden in your private dwellings, and in pens and cabins\u2014shut out, cut off from all healing influences, from all mind-restoring cares.\u2026 Could their melancholy histories be spread before you as revealed to my grieved spirit during the last three months, how promptly, how earnestly would you search out the most approved means of relief; how trifling, how insignificant, by comparison, would appear the sacrifices you are asked to make; how would a few dimes and dollars, gathered from each citizen, diminish in value as a possession, compared with the certain benefits and vast good to be secured for the suffering insane...by the consecration and application of a sufficient fund to the construction of a suitable hospital.\u2026\n\u2014Dorothea Dix, Memorial Soliciting a State Hospital for the Protection and Cure of the Insane,\nSubmitted to the General Assembly of North Carolina, November 1848\nDorothea Dix can best be compared to whom?\n(A) Abigail Adams (B) Clara Barton (C) Shirley Temple (D) Hillary Clinton\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on us history for help. Both Dorothea Dix and Clara barton are American nurses. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: This question refers to the following information.\n\"As our late Conduct at the Conestoga Manor and Lancaster have occasioned much Speculation & a great diversity of Sentiments in this and neighboring Governments; some vindicating & others condemning it; some charitably alleviating the Crime, & others maliciously painting it in the most odious & detestable Colours, we think it our duty to lay before the Publick, the whole Matter as it appeared, & still appears, to us. . . .\n\"If these things are not sufficient to prove an unjustifiable Attachment in the Quakers to the Indians Savages, a fixed Resolution to befriend them & an utter insensibility to human Distresses, let us consider a few more recent Facts. When we found the last Summer that we were likely to get no Assistance from the Government, some Volunteers went out at our own Expense, determined to drive our Enemies from our Borders; & when we came near to the great Island, we understood that a Number of their Warriors had gone out against our Frontiers. Upon this we returned and came up with them and fought with them at the Munfey Hill where we lost some of our Men & killed some of their Warriors & thereby saved our Frontiers from this Story in another Expedition. But no sooner had we destroyed their Provisions on the great Island, & ruined their trade with the good People at Bethlehem, but these very Indians, who were justly suspected of having murdered our Friends in Northampton County, were by the Influence of some Quakers taken under the Protection of the Government to screen them from the Resentments of the Friends and Relations of the Murdered, & to support them thro the Winter.\"\n\u2014\"Apology of the Paxton Boys\" (pamphlet), 1764 (Note: \"apology\" in this context should be read as an explanation, not an admission of guilt or regret.\nThe sentiments expressed in the explanation above reflect which of the ongoing tensions during the colonial period of American history?\n(A) Tensions between British policies and the aspirations of North American colonists. (B) Tensions between American Indians allied with the French and those allied with the British. (C) Tensions between freed African Americans and white planters. (D) Tensions between backcountry settlers and elites within colonial America.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on us history for help. After the French and Indian War, the Scotch-Irish settlers attacked American Indians. After the attacks on the Conestoga, about 250 Paxton Boys present their grievances to the Pennsylvania legislature. As mentioned in the information, the Paxton Boys cited resentiment at local elites. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: This question refers to the following information.\nOur leaders talk about stopping aggression from the north, but this was a struggle among groups of Vietnamese until we intervened. We seem bent upon saving the Vietnamese from Ho Chi Minh even if we have to kill them and demolish their country to do it. As the native people survey bombed-out villages, women and children burned by napalm, rice crops destroyed and cities overrun with our military personnel, they are doubtless saying secretly of the Vietcong guerillas and of the American forces, \"A plague on both your houses.\" \u2026 Stop the bombing, north and south, end search and destroy offensive sweeps, and confine our military action to holding operations on the ground. Bombing the north has failed to halt or seriously check the flow of troops to the south and may, in fact, have prompted a much greater war effort by Hanoi.\n\u2014Senator George McGovern, \"The Lessons of Vietnam,\" April 25, 1967\nWhich of the following opinions from the 1960s most directly reflects the perspective of George McGovern's speech?\n(A) Americans must maximize their technological edge in Vietnam. (B) American bombing in Vietnam is step by step leading to progress in the war. (C) American bombing in Vietnam is a failure. (D) America must not give in to defeatism about the war in Vietnam.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on us history for help. \"Stop the bombing\" and \"Bombing the north has failed to halt or seriously check the flow of troops to the south\" indicate that the perspective of George McGovern's speech is that Amerian bombing in Vietnam is a failure. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: This question refers to the following information.\n\"In the new Code of Laws which I suppose it will be necessary for you to make I desire you would Remember the Ladies, and be more generous and favorable to them than your ancestors. Do not put such unlimited power into the hands of the Husbands. Remember all Men would be tyrants if they could. If particular care and attention is not paid to the Ladies we are determined to foment a Rebellion, and will not hold ourselves bound by any Laws in which we have no voice, or Representation.\"\nAbigail Adams, in a letter to John Adams, 1776\n\"Special legislation for woman has placed us in a most anomalous position. Women invested with the rights of citizens in one section\u2014voters, jurors, office-holders\u2014crossing an imaginary line, are subjects in the next. In some States, a married woman may hold property and transact business in her own name; in others, her earnings belong to her husband. In some States, a woman may testify against her husband, sue and be sued in the courts; in others, she has no redress in case of damage to person, property, or character. In case of divorce on account of adultery in the husband, the innocent wife is held to possess no right to children or property, unless by special decree of the court. But in no State of the Union has the wife the right to her own person, or to any part of the joint earnings of the co-partnership during the life of her husband. In some States women may enter the law schools and practice in the courts; in others they are forbidden. In some universities girls enjoy equal educational advantages with boys, while many of the proudest institutions in the land deny them admittance, though the sons of China, Japan and Africa are welcomed there. But the privileges already granted in the several States are by no means secure.\"\nSusan B. Anthony, \"Declaration of Rights for Women,\" July 4, 1876\nThe sentiments expressed in the second excerpt by Susan B. Anthony are most likely in support of\n(A) the Equal Rights Amendment (B) universal suffrage (C) states' rights (D) prohibition\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on us history for help. The above information mentioned that women are in an anomalous position in terms of legislation. Women's earnings do not belong to themselves, or they cannot testify against her husbands. Susan believes women should have equal legal rights as men. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: This question refers to the following information.\n\"Society in every state is a blessing, but government even in its best state is but a necessary evil; in its worst state an intolerable one; for when we suffer, or are exposed to the same miseries by a government, which we might expect in a country without government, our calamity is heightened by reflecting that we furnish the means by which we suffer. Government, like dress, is the badge of lost innocence; the palaces of kings are built on the ruins of the bowers of paradise. For were the impulses of conscience clear, uniform, and irresistibly obeyed, man would need no other lawgiver; but that not being the case, he finds it necessary to surrender up a part of his property to furnish means for the protection of the rest; and this he is induced to do by the same prudence which in every other case advises him out of two evils to choose the least. Wherefore, security being the true design and end of government, it unanswerably follows that whatever form thereof appears most likely to ensure it to us, with the least expense and greatest benefit, is preferable to all others.\"\nThomas Paine, Common Sense, 1776\nWhich of the following \"miseries\" alluded to above were most condemned by Anti-Federalists of the post-Revolutionary era?\n(A) Organized response to Bacon's Rebellion (B) Federal response to Shays's Rebellion (C) Federal response to the Whiskey Rebellion (D) Federal response to Pontiac's Rebellion\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on us history for help. Anti-Federalists do not believe centralized government power, and suspect Washington's military response to Whiskey Rebellion. Bacon's Rebellion and Pontiac's Rebellion happen before the Revolution and they can be ruled out. The answer is (C).", "high_school_world_history": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about high school world history.\n\nQ: This question refers to the following information.\n\"At least one of the [world's] societies would have to somehow enormously increase its productivity [in order to achieve global hegemony]. That quantum jump would have to be made before the various scientific, technological, agricultural, and industrial revolutions on which our post-quantum-leap world rests. It could only be accomplished by exploiting the ecosystems, mineral resources, and human assets of whole continents outside the lands of the society making the jump. Western Europe did just that by means of its brutality and guns and, more important, by geographical and ecological luck.\"\nCopyright \u00a9 2015 Cambridge University Press.\nAlfred Crosby, historian, Ecological Imperialism, 2004\nThe \"quantum jump\" mentioned in the passage most directly contributed to which of the following developments in the period 1450\u20131750 C.E.?\n(A) A breakdown in trade routes through the collapse of the established state structure (B) An increase in the population of the world through more plentiful supplies of food (C) The spread of Chinese and Indian belief systems across the world (D) An increase in social unrest\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on world history for help. The \"quantum jump\" mentioned in the passage refers to the conquest of the New World and the Columbian Exchange. Choice (A) and (C) did not happen in history. Choice (C) refers to the human assets. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: This question refers to the following information.\n\"The struggle against neo-colonialism is not aimed at excluding the capital of the developed world from operating in less developed countries. It is aimed at preventing the financial power of the developed countries being used in such a way as to impoverish the less developed.\nNon-alignment, as practiced by Ghana and many other countries, is based on co-operation with all States whether they be capitalist, socialist or have a mixed economy. Such a policy, therefore, involves foreign investment from capitalist countries, but it must be invested in accordance with a national plan drawn up by the government of the non-aligned State with its own interests in mind. The issue is not what return the foreign investor receives on his investments\u2026The question is one of power. A State in the grip of neo-colonialism is not master of its own destiny.\"\nKwame Nkrumah, Neo-Colonialism, 1965\nWhich of the following provides the best context for Nkrumah's writings?\n(A) The Industrial Revolution (B) Decolonization (C) Regional Free Trade Associations (D) Autarky\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on world history for help. The passage expresses a point that the successful fight against neo-colonialism were in danger and the newly independent nations like Ghana may be re-colonized via financial power of the developed countries. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: This question refers to the following information.\n\"Indeed, as both the fatwas of distinguished [scholars] who base their opinion on reason and tradition alike and the consensus of the Sunni community agree that the ancient obligation of extirpation, extermination, and expulsion of evil innovation must be the aim of our exalted aspiration, for \"Religious zeal is a victory for the Faith of God the Beneficent\"; then, in accordance with the words of the Prophet (Peace upon him!) \"Whosoever introduces evil innovation into our order must be expelled\" and \"Whosoever does aught against our order must be expelled,\" action has become necessary and exigent\u2026\"\nLetter from Ottoman Sultan Selim I to Safavid Shah Ismail I, 1514\nThe letter from Selim I is most clearly an example of which of the following?\n(A) The maintenance of military supremacy at all costs (B) Expanding tensions between religious sects (C) Factors that brought about the collapse of the Ottoman Empire (D) Peacemaking efforts among the Islamic empires\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on world history for help. The passage is an example of expanding tensions between Selim and Ismail. In the passage the Selim references the fatwa and the consensus of the Sunni community to against whosoever introduces evil. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: This question refers to the following information.\n\"The real grievance of the worker is the insecurity of his existence; he is not sure that he will always have work, he is not sure that he will always be healthy, and he foresees that he will one day be old and unfit to work. If he falls into poverty, even if only through a prolonged illness, he is then completely helpless, exam_ins to his own devices, and society does not currently recognize any real obligation towards him beyond the usual help for the poor, even if he has been working all the time ever so faithfully and diligently. The usual help for the poor, however, leaves a lot to be desired, especially in large cities, where it is very much worse than in the country.\"\nOtto von Bismarck, 1884\nOtto von Bismarck likely made this speech in reaction to which of the following issues?\n(A) Social acceptance of child labor (B) Declining life expectancy in Germany (C) Criticisms of German trade tariffs (D) Negative effects attributed to industrial capitalism\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on world history for help. The passage talks about the grievance of the work under the industrial capitalism. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: This question refers to the following information.\nHe contains all works and desires and all perfumes and all tastes. He enfolds the whole universe and in silence is loving to all. This is the Spirit that is in my heart, this is Brahman. To him I shall come when I go beyond this life, and to him will come he who has faith and doubts not.\n\u2014The Upanishads, India, c. 1000 BCE\nTo which religion does the speaker most likely belong?\n(A) Hinduism (B) Buddhism (C) Shintoism (D) Zoroastrianism\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on world history for help. Brahman refers to the ultimate reality of all things in the Hindu religion. In contrast, Buddhism does not have a concept of supreme God. The answer is (A).", "human_aging": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about human aging.\n\nQ: All other things being equal, which of the following persons is more likely to show osteoporosis?\n(A) An older Hispanic American woman (B) An older African American woman (C) An older Asian American woman (D) An older Native American woman\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on human aging for help. Although osteoporosis can occur at any age, the risk is higher for older people. It is most common in Asian and non-Hispanic white women. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: The finding that adults tend to remember events from their adolescence better than from other periods in their lives is referred to as the\n(A) Adolescence advantage (B) Reminiscence bump (C) Memorial memorial (D) Quadratic retrieval spike\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on human aging for help. Reminiscence bump is a phenomenon that older adults tend to recollect events during their young ages. People usually have a period of childhood amnesia from birth to around age 5, and a reminiscence bump between 10 and 30. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Which element in tobacco smoke is responsible for cancers?\n(A) Nicotine (B) Tar (C) Carbon monoxide (D) Smoke particles\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on human aging for help. The benzene, acrylamide and acrylonitrile in tar interact with the lungs and cause DNA mutations in cells of the lungs, and lead to cancer. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: When older adults move to a new state after retirement, which of the following is the more likely destination?\n(A) Texas (B) California (C) Hawaii (D) Vermont\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on human aging for help. Texas does not have state tax, and has low cost of living compared with the other three options. The answer is (A).", "human_sexuality": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about human sexuality.\n\nQ: The most common disorder among men who seek sexual therapy is:\n(A) premature ejaculation (B) inhibited ejaculation (C) erectile disorder (D) ejaculatory disorder\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on human sexuality for help. The most common type of arousal disorder for men is erectile dysfunction, meaning that a person is not able to get any physical satisfaction from sexual activity although he may be interested in it. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: A woman who knows she has active herpes and untreated syphilis but continues to have sex without informing her partners of her condition has, in psychoanalytic terms:\n(A) a strong ego (B) a weak superego (C) a weak id (D) a strong superego\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on human sexuality for help. A person with weak superego tends to be delinquent, criminal or have antisocial personality. The action of the woman who knows she has active venereal disease but still have sex with her partners indicate she may has antisocial personality. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: The nature of homosexual activities that occur during preadolescence include all but which of the following?\n(A) sexual intercourse (B) circle jerks (C) exhibitionism (D) touching each other's genitals\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on human sexuality for help. Sexual intercourse is prohibited during preadolescence. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Women's ability to have multiple orgasms is primarily due to:\n(A) the fact that they do not have a refractory period. (B) the response of the inner layers of the vagina. (C) having alternating orgasms in different locations. (D) the G-Spot.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on human sexuality for help. The refractory period is the time when a person is not able to be erect or is not interested in sex. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Morning sickness is typically a problem:\n(A) during the first trimester (B) during the second trimester (C) during the third trimester (D) all through the pregnancy\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on human sexuality for help. Morning sickness usually begins by nine weeks after conception, corresponding to the first trimester. The answer is (A).", "international_law": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about international law.\n\nQ: How the consent to be bound of a State may be expressed?\n(A) The consent of a State to be bound is expressed only by ratification (B) The consent of a state to be bound by a treaty may be expressed by signature, ratification, acceptance, approval or accession (C) The consent of a State to be bound is expressed by signature (D) The consent of a State to be bound is expressed by whatever means they choose\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on international law for help. Article 11 of Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties signed in 1969 states that \"the consent of a State to be bound by a treaty may be expressed by signature, exchange of instruments constituting a treaty, ratification, acceptance, approval or accession, or by any other means if so agreed.\" (B) is the most precise and accurate answer. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: What is the judge ad hoc?\n(A) If a party to a contentious case before the ICJ does not have a national sitting as judge, it is entitled to nominate someone as a judge solely for that case, with the title of judge ad hoc (B) Judge ad hoc is the member of the bench of the ICJ with a casting vote (C) Judge ad hoc is a surrogate judge, in case a judge is disqualified or passes away (D) Judge ad hoc is the judge that each party will always nominate in every contentious case\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on international law for help. As \"ad hoc\" implies, a judge ad hoc is appointed only for a specific case or period, when a party to a contentious case before the International Court of Justice does not have a regular national sitting as judge. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: When 'consent' can serve as a circumstance precluding the wrongfulness of a State conduct?\n(A) Consent can serve as a circumstance precluding the wrongfulness whenever it is given (B) Consent can never serve as a circumstance precluding wrongfulness (C) Consent can serve as a circumstance precluding wrongfulness, provided the consent is valid and to the extent that the conduct remains within the limits of the consent given (D) Consent can always serve as a circumstance precluding wrongfulness, no matter which organ of the State gives it\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on international law for help. Valid consent can serve as a circumstance precluding the wrongfulness of a State conduct if the conduct remains within the limits of that consent, according to Chapter V of the Responsibility of States for Internationally Wrongful Acts, 2001, United Nations. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Would a reservation to the definition of torture in the ICCPR be acceptable in contemporary practice?\n(A) This is an acceptable reservation if the reserving country's legislation employs a different definition (B) This is an unacceptable reservation because it contravenes the object and purpose of the ICCPR (C) This is an unacceptable reservation because the definition of torture in the ICCPR is consistent with customary international law (D) This is an acceptable reservation because under general international law States have the right to enter reservations to treaties\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on international law for help. For it contravenes the object and purpose of the ICCPR, this is an unacceptable reservation in contemporary practice. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: What types of force does Article 2(4) of the UN Charter prohibit?\n(A) Article 2(4) encompasses only armed force (B) Article 2(4) encompasses all types of force, including sanctions (C) Article 2(4) encompasses all interference in the domestic affairs of States (D) Article 2(4) encompasses force directed only against a State's territorial integrity\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on international law for help. Article 2(4) of the UN Charter prohibits states from using armed forces in their international relations. The answer is (A).", "jurisprudence": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about jurisprudence.\n\nQ: Iverson Jewelers wrote a letter to Miller, 'We have received an exceptionally fine self winding Rolox watch which we will sell to you at a very favorable price.'\n(A) The letter is an offer to sell (B) A valid offer cannot be made by letter. (C) The letter contains a valid offer which will terminate within a reasonable time. (D) The letter lacks one of the essential elements of an offer.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on jurisprudence for help. An offer shows the intent to enter into a mutually-beneficial contract with specific terms. An offer can be made by a letter. While this letter indicates the willingness to sell, the lack of specific terms, such as transaction price and offer expiration date, makes it an incomplete offer. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Functions of the law include all but which of the following?\n(A) maximizing individual freedom (B) providing a basis for compromise (C) keeping the peace (D) promoting the principles of the free enterprise system\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on jurisprudence for help. Laws are fundamentally about helping resolve disputes between individuals, and therefore essential for maximizing individual freedom, providing a basis for compromise, and keeping the peace. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: The ________ School of jurisprudence postulates that the law is based on what is \"correct.\"\n(A) Natural Law (B) Analytical (C) Historical (D) Sociological\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on jurisprudence for help. Natural Law School of jurisprudence focuses on the laws of nature, and states that the law should be based on ethics, morals, and what is \"correct\". Analytical deals with the law as it already exists, Historical postulates that the law was found and not made, and Sociological studies how the law and society impact each other. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Which word best summarizes Weber's explanation of the development of formally rational law?\n(A) Authority. (B) Charisma. (C) Co-operation. (D) Capitalism.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on jurisprudence for help. Weber explained the development of formal rationality in laws as how the modern society moved from tradition to rationality, where people decide actions based less on how they were culturally done and more on expected utilities. How rational individuals optimize efficiency of accomplishing tasks for higher rewards is a core principle of Capitalism. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Which position does Rawls claim is the least likely to be adopted by the POP (people in the original position)?\n(A) The POP would choose equality above liberty. (B) The POP would opt for the 'maximin' strategy. (C) The POP would opt for the 'difference principle'. (D) The POP would reject the 'system of natural liberty.'\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on jurisprudence for help. The POP would opt for the 'maximin' strategy, opt for the 'difference principle', and reject the 'system of natural liberty', but the POP would not choose equality above liberty, since the POP assume both equal and free citizens. The answer is (A).", "logical_fallacies": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about logical fallacies.\n\nQ: When an arguer causes confusion during refutation because of real or feigned lack of an ability to engage in refutation, that arguer may have committed the fallacy of\n(A) poor sportsmanship (B) appeal to compassion (C) argument against the person (D) ignorance of refutation\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on logical fallacies for help. Ignorance of refutation, one of Aristotle's original list of logical fallacies in his Organon, is when someone causes confusion in an argument through real or feigned inability to engage in refutation, in order to win the argument. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: The complex question fallacy consists of\n(A) arguing something is inferior just because it doesn't do something it was never intended to do. (B) including more than one claim in the proposition and treating proof for one claim as proof for all the claims. (C) drawing a conclusion before examining the evidence, and only considering evidence that supports that conclusion. (D) asking a question that includes either an unproven assumption or more than one question, thus making a straightforward yes or no answer meaningless.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on logical fallacies for help. The complex question fallacy is when someone makes a single yes or no answer to a question meaningless, by including either an unproven assumption or many questions. The latter is also known as the many questions fallacy. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Arguing that what is true of the parts must be true of the whole is the fallacy of...\n(A) Division (B) Composition (C) Appeal to the person (D) Appeal to ignorance\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on logical fallacies for help. Fallacy of composition occurs when someone argues what is true of the parts must be true of the whole. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Which of the following is true of a valid categorical syllogism?\n(A) The minor premise must deny the antecedent (B) The major premise must affirm the consequent (C) The middle term must be used in at least one premise in a universal or unqualified sense (D) All of the above\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on logical fallacies for help. A valid categorical syllogism must satisfy several conditions: (1) the syllogism must have exactly three terms (2) every term of the syllogism must be used twice exactly, (3) a term may be used only once in any premise, and (4) the middle term must be used in at least one premise in a universal or unqualified sense, etc. Only (C) is true. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: If someone attacks the character of an opposing arguer, instead of responding to that opponent's arguments, the first person has probably committed which of the following fallacies?\n(A) tu quoque (B) horse laugh (C) argument against the person (D) ignoratio elenchi\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on logical fallacies for help. The argument against the person fallacy occurs when someone irrelevantly attacks the character of an opposing arguer, instead of addressing that opponent's arguments. The answer is (C).", "machine_learning": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about machine learning.\n\nQ: Which image data augmentation is most common for natural images?\n(A) random crop and horizontal flip (B) random crop and vertical flip (C) posterization (D) dithering\nA: Let's think step by step. Data augmentation is used to increase the diversity of images in the training dataset. It is important that natural images are kept natural after being augmented. Vertical flips of images are not natural, so (B) is false. Posterization makes the image look like a poster and and dithering increases color depth. None of these two preserve the natural property. The only natural data augmentation technique is (A). The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Traditionally, when we have a real-valued input attribute during decision-tree learning we consider a binary split according to whether the attribute is above or below some threshold. Pat suggests that instead we should just have a multiway split with one branch for each of the distinct values of the attribute. From the list below choose the single biggest problem with Pat\u2019s suggestion:\n(A) It is too computationally expensive. (B) It would probably result in a decision tree that scores badly on the training set and a testset. (C) It would probably result in a decision tree that scores well on the training set but badly on a testset. (D) It would probably result in a decision tree that scores well on a testset but badly on a training set.\nA: Let's think step by step. Because the input is real valued, it is unlikely that the same values appear both at training and test time. This means that while such a decision tree could yield good performance on the training data, when evaluated on the test data it will perform badly because the decision tree won\u2019t know what to do with numbers that did not appear in the training data. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: You are reviewing papers for the World\u2019s Fanciest Machine Learning Conference, and you see submissions with the following claims. Which ones would you consider accepting?\n(A) My method achieves a training error lower than all previous methods! (B) My method achieves a test error lower than all previous methods! (Footnote: When regularisation parameter \u03bb is chosen so as to minimise test error.) (C) My method achieves a test error lower than all previous methods! (Footnote: When regularisation parameter \u03bb is chosen so as to minimise cross-validaton error.) (D) My method achieves a cross-validation error lower than all previous methods! (Footnote: When regularisation parameter \u03bb is chosen so as to minimise cross-validaton error.)\nA: Let's think step by step. In machine learning, we train with some data and fixed hyperparameters and the training error can be arbitrarily low, so (A) can\u2019t be right. Then, one compares different hyperparameters by selecting the model with the lowest cross-validation error, this means that (B) and (D) are not the right procedure. The only relevant number after these is the test error and thus (C) is the right answer. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: A 6-sided die is rolled 15 times and the results are: side 1 comes up 0 times; side 2: 1 time; side 3: 2 times; side 4: 3 times; side 5: 4 times; side 6: 5 times. Based on these results, what is the probability of side 3 coming up when using Add-1 Smoothing?\n(A) 2.0/15 (B) 1.0/7 (C) 3.0/16 (D) 1.0/5\nA: Let's think step by step. Add-1 smoothing adds the value of one to the different counts and then normalizes the probabilities accordingly. The counts after adding one will be: side 1 comes up 1 time; side 2: 2 times; side 3: 3 times; side 4: 4 times; side 5: 5 times; side 6: 6 times. The number of sum one die rolls will be 21, so the probability of drawing a three is 3/21 = 1/7. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: To achieve an 0/1 loss estimate that is less than 1 percent of the true 0/1 loss (with probability 95%), according to Hoeffding's inequality the IID test set must have how many examples?\n(A) around 10 examples (B) around 100 examples (C) between 100 and 500 examples (D) more than 1000 examples\nA: Let's think step by step. By the Hoeffding\u2019s inequality, we expect that with 95% probability the in-sample and out-of-sample errors differ by epsilon when we have N samples if 2 exp(-2 epsilon^2 N)<0.05, this implies that N > -1/(2*epsilon**2) log ( 0.05/2 )= log (40)*5000. Since log(40)>1, we have that one needs more than 1000 examples. The answer is (D).", "management": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about management.\n\nQ: How can organisational structures that are characterised by democratic and inclusive styles of management be described?\n(A) Hierarchical (B) Bureaucratic (C) Flat (D) Functional\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on management for help. Flat organizational structures are characterized by democratic and inclusive styles of management, and have few (if any) levels of management between the workers and managers.  The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Hygiene factors are associated with which writer?\n(A) Frederick Hertzberg (B) D.C. McClelland (C) Abraham Maslow (D) Douglas McGregor\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on management for help. Hygiene factors include compensation, company policies, supervision, interpersonal relations, and work environments. Hertzberg lists them as factors that cannot motivate employees but can minimize job dissatisfaction. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: What characteristic is not a key feature of the 'open systems' model of management?\n(A) Morale (B) Innovation (C) Growth resource (D) Adaptation\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on management for help. The key characteristics of an open system in management include innovation, growth resource, and adaption, but do not include morale. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Which element of the cultural web forms regalia?\n(A) Symbols (B) Rituals and routines (C) Power structures (D) Control systems\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on management for help. The cultural web is a tool for mapping an organization's culture, where symbols form the regalia that visually expresses the values that the organization holds as important. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: What are the two main dimensions of the Ohio Studies into leadership?\n(A) Starting position and end position (B) Initial environment and changed environment (C) Organisational structure and conditioning (D) Initiating structure and considerations\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on management for help. The Ohio State Leadership Studies conducted in the 1940s identified initiating structure and consideration as the two main dimensions of leader behavior. The answer is (D).", "marketing": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about marketing.\n\nQ: Although the content and quality can be as controlled as direct mail, response rates of this medium are lower because of the lack of a personal address mechanism. This media format is known as:\n(A) Care lines. (B) Direct mail. (C) Inserts. (D) Door to door.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on marketing for help. Door to door marketing delivers non-addressed items within all buildings within a geographic area. While it can control the content and quality as well as direct mail marketing, its response rate is lower because of the lack of a personal address mechanism. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: In an organization, the group of people tasked with buying decisions is referred to as the _______________.\n(A) Outsourcing unit. (B) Procurement centre. (C) Chief executive unit. (D) Decision-making unit.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on marketing for help. In an organization, the group of the people tasked with buying decision is referred to as the decision-making unit. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: The single group within society that is most vulnerable to reference group influence is:\n(A) The older consumer who feels somewhat left out of things. (B) The married women, many of whom feel a need for stability in their lives. (C) New immigrants who really want to assimilate into their new culture. (D) Children, who base most of their buying decisions on outside influences.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on marketing for help. Children, who mostly based their buying decisions on outside influences, are the single group within society that is more vulnerable to reference group influence. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Which of the following is an assumption in Maslow's hierarchy of needs?\n(A) Needs are dependent on culture and also on social class. (B) Lower-level needs must be at least partially satisfied before higher needs can affect behaviour. (C) Needs are not prioritized or arranged in any particular order. (D) Satisfied needs are motivators, and new needs emerge when current needs remain unmet.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on marketing for help. Maslow's hierarchy of needs, from the bottom upwards, are physiological (food and clothing), safety, love and belonging needs, esteem, and self-actualization. Lower-level needs must be at least partially satisfied before higher ones can affect behavior. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: _____________ is a natural outcome when combining demographic and geographic variables.\n(A) Geodemographics (B) Product differentiation. (C) ANSOFF matrix. (D) Brand management.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on marketing for help. Geodemographics is a natural outcome when combining demographic and geographic variables. The answer is (A).", "medical_genetics": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about medical genetics.\n\nQ: The stage of meiosis in which chromosomes pair and cross over is:\n(A) prophase I (B) metaphase I (C) prophase II (D) metaphase II\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on medical genetics for help. Prophase I is the stage of meiosis where homologous chromosomes pair with each other and exchange genetic material. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: DNA ligase is\n(A) an enzyme that joins fragments in normal DNA replication (B) an enzyme of bacterial origin which cuts DNA at defined base sequences (C) an enzyme that facilitates transcription of specific genes (D) an enzyme which limits the level to which a particular nutrient reaches\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on medical genetics for help. DNA ligase is a type of enzyme (EC 6.5.1.1) responsible for joining DNA strands together by catalyzing a phosphodiester bond. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Which of the following conditions does not show multifactorial inheritance?\n(A) Pyloric stenosis (B) Schizophrenia (C) Spina bifida (neural tube defects) (D) Marfan syndrome\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on medical genetics for help. Multifactorial inheritance is when more than a single factor is responsible for causing a given trait or health problem. Genes cannot be the only factor. Marfan syndrome, on the other hand, requires only one abnormal copy of the of the Marfan gene, from one parent, to inherit the trait. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: A gene showing codominance\n(A) has both alleles independently expressed in the heterozygote (B) has one allele dominant to the other (C) has alleles tightly linked on the same chromosome (D) has alleles expressed at the same time in development\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on medical genetics for help. Codominance, as it relates to genetics, refers to a type of genetic inheritance where the phenotype of both the parents is easily observed in the offspring. A heterozygote is an individual having two different alleles of a gene. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Large triplet repeat expansions can be detected by:\n(A) polymerase chain reaction. (B) single strand conformational polymorphism analysis. (C) Southern blotting. (D) Western blotting.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on medical genetics for help. A Southern blot is a method in molecular biology for detecting specific DNA sequences in a sample. Large triplet repeat expansions are usually detected with this method. The answer is (C).", "miscellaneous": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about miscellaneous.\n\nQ: Which of these songs was a Top 10 hit for the rock band The Police?\n(A) 'Radio Ga-Ga' (B) 'Ob-la-di Ob-la-da' (C) 'De Do Do Do De Da Da Da' (D) 'In-a-Gadda-Da-Vida'\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia for help. Radio Ga-Ga is by Queen. Ob-la-di Ob-la-da is by The Beatles. And In-a-Gadda-Da-Vida is by Iron Butterfly. Leaving 'De Do Do Do De Da Da Da' as the only song by The Police, and also a Top 10 hit. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: What place is named in the title of the 1979 live album by rock legends Cheap Trick?\n(A) Budapest (B) Budokan (C) Bhutan (D) Britain\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia for help. Nippon Budokan is an indoor arena in Tokyo, Japan renowned for hosting rock music concerts including Cheap Trick in 1978. 'Cheap Trick at Budokan' became the name of their album. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: What is produced during photosynthesis?\n(A) hydrogen (B) nylon (C) oxygen (D) light\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia for help. Photosynthesis is the process in which green plants use the green pigment chlorophyll to synthesize foods with water and carbon dioxide. Oxygen is the byproduct of this process. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Who is the shortest man to ever win an NBA slam dunk competition?\n(A) Anthony 'Spud' Webb (B) Michael 'Air' Jordan (C) Tyrone 'Muggsy' Bogues (D) Julius 'Dr J' Erving\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia for help. In 1986, Spud Webb, standing only 5'7\" became the shortest NBA player in history to win an official slam dunk contest. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: How many axles does a standard automobile have?\n(A) one (B) two (C) four (D) eight\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia for help. Most cars have two axles to rotate the wheels.. The answer is (B).", "moral_disputes": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about moral disputes.\n\nQ: Baron admits that the versions of the ticking bomb hypothetical she discusses are \"stunningly stupid,\" but she claims this is actually evidence of\n(A) the stupidity of most traditional philosophical examples. (B) a general lack of intelligence among people with advanced degrees. (C) the wrongness of torture. (D) the readiness on the part of many intelligent people to see torture as the best solution to deal with terrorism.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on moral disputes for help. The ticking bomb hypothetical poses a problem where many people will die to an exploding bomb, if the hypothetical terrorist does not disclose how to defuse it. Baron sees this hypothetical as silly, but its prevalence does suggest intelligent people, particularly utilitarians, see torture as justifiable to save the lives in this scenario. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: A fertilized ovum is also known as\n(A) a zygote. (B) an embryo. (C) a viability. (D) a blastocyst.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on moral disputes for help. Once a single sperm penetrates the layers of an egg to form a new cell, that cell is called a zygote. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Pence compares six different cases of reproduction, from natural twinning to SCNT. What conclusion does he draw from this comparison?\n(A) SCNT is not a different kind of reproduction because there are no morally relevant differences between it and other permissible means of reproduction. (B) Because there is a low risk of harm for natural twinning, there will be a low risk of harm for SCNT. (C) both A and B (D) neither A nor B\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on moral disputes for help. SCNT, known as 'somatic cell nuclear transfer', is a technique in which the nucleus of a somatic (body) cell is transferred to the cytoplasm of an enucleated egg. This is used in farm animal cloning. Pence may compare this to other processes of reproduction, and see little moral separation. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Which of the following is an intrinsic good, according to Singer?\n(A) being in the upper class (B) the ability to learn and solve problems (C) being more beautiful than most of the population (D) being shorter than average\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on moral disputes for help. Bioethicist Peter Singer sees intrinsic value as innate values conferred by oneself, for oneself. Innanimate objects can be beautiful, short, or have some valuable criteria, but capabilities are intrinsically good. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: According to Metz, what is wrong with consequentialist arguments against capital punishment based on African values?\n(A) It is unclear as of yet whether or not capital punishment deters harm to the community. (B) It is unclear as of yet whether or not capital punishment deters harm to any individuals. (C) Consequentialism is not supported by African values. (D) Even though consequentialism is supported by African values, no consequentialist arguments framed in terms of African values have been offered.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on moral disputes for help. Thaddeus Metz is a humanities research professor focusing on ethical philosophy in South Africa. Metz has written the death penalty is unjustified as it treats individuals as incapable of communal relations. It is unclear that capital punishment is to the benefit of, or a deterrent of harm to the community. The answer is (A).", "moral_scenarios": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about moral scenarios.\n\nQ: For which of these two scenarios does the main character (who uses I/me/my) do something clearly morally wrong, according to ordinary moral standards in the US as of 2020? Scenario 1 | I took his wallet after he harassed me at the bar. Scenario 2 | I made love to my newborn baby boy.\n(A) Wrong, Wrong (B) Wrong, Not wrong (C) Not wrong, Wrong (D) Not wrong, Not wrong\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on moral scenarios for help. Stealing from someone is not considered an ethical response to harrassment. And having sex with a minor is egregiously unethical. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: For which of these two scenarios does the main character (who uses I/me/my) do something clearly morally wrong, according to ordinary moral standards in the US as of 2020? Scenario 1 | I asked for a cigarette from the guy outside the store. Scenario 2 | When the security guard left his post, I pocketed a rare coin.\n(A) Wrong, Wrong (B) Wrong, Not wrong (C) Not wrong, Wrong (D) Not wrong, Not wrong\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on moral scenarios for help. Asking for something is not morally wrong. Stealing is morally wrong. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: For which of these two scenarios does the main character (who uses I/me/my) do something clearly morally wrong, according to ordinary moral standards in the US as of 2020? Scenario 1 | During the house's demolition, I pushed him into a wall. Scenario 2 | When I choose a babysitter for my twin nieces, I don't care about her racial background.\n(A) Wrong, Wrong (B) Wrong, Not wrong (C) Not wrong, Wrong (D) Not wrong, Not wrong\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on moral scenarios for help. Physical violence is morally wrong. Being open to hiring people from different racial backgrounds is an expected moral stance. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: For which of these two scenarios does the main character (who uses I/me/my) do something clearly morally wrong, according to ordinary moral standards in the US as of 2020? Scenario 1 | I bought an old pick-up truck for work. Scenario 2 | I looked up at the gorgeous waterfall and threw a rock at it.\n(A) Wrong, Wrong (B) Wrong, Not wrong (C) Not wrong, Wrong (D) Not wrong, Not wrong\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on moral scenarios for help. Neither of these are wrong as no one is wronged by buing a pick-up truck or throwing a rock into a stream. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: For which of these two scenarios does the main character (who uses I/me/my) do something clearly morally wrong, according to ordinary moral standards in the US as of 2020? Scenario 1 | I really loved my newborn baby boy. Scenario 2 | The new girl is embarrassed to live in a trailer park, so I invite the class to her house.\n(A) Wrong, Wrong (B) Wrong, Not wrong (C) Not wrong, Wrong (D) Not wrong, Not wrong\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on moral scenarios for help. Loving someone is not wrong. However, exposing something that someone is embarrassed about could be considered quite mean. The answer is (C).", "nutrition": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about nutrition.\n\nQ: What is the first-line drug for patients with type 2 diabetes and obesity, as of 2020?\n(A) Acarbose (B) Metformin (C) Sulphonylureas (D) Insulin\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on nutrition for help. Metformin (Fortamet, Glumetza, or others) is usually the first medication prescribed for type 2 diabetes, as well as obesity. It works by lowering glucose production in the liver and improving the body's sensitivity to insulin. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Which of the following statements is correct (according to knowledge in 2020)?\n(A) Consumers with phenylketonuria must avoid the consumption of the sweetener aspartame (B) Consumers with phenylketonuria must avoid the consumption of the sweetener saccharin (C) Consumers with phenylketonuria must avoid the consumption of the sweetener sucralose (D) Consumers with phenylketonuria must avoid the consumption of the sweetener acesulfame K\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on nutrition for help. People with phenylketonuria (PKU) cannot break down the amino acid phenylalanine. As it builds up in the blood and brain it can lead to brain damage. People with PKU should avoid foods that are converted to phenylalanine in the body, such as aspartame. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Which of the following statements about iodine is correct, as of 2020?\n(A) 50% of adults consume iodine at levels below the RNI (B) Dairy products are a poor source of iodine (C) The iodine content of organic milk is generally lower that the level in non-organic milk (D) UK dietary reference values recommend an increase in iodine intake in pregnancy\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on nutrition for help. Organic milk usually has less iodine content than non-organic milk. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for the protective effect of dietary fibre against cancer of the colon, as of 2020?\n(A) Propionic acid, formed during colonic fibre fermentation inhibits liver fatty acid synthesis (B) Butyric acid, formed during colonic fibre fermentation stimulates \"silencing\" of the SLC5A8 tumour suppressor gene (C) None of these options are correct (D) Butyric acid, formed during colonic fibre fermentation stimulates anti-oxidant defences in the colon\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on nutrition for help. Dietary fibre is inversely proportional to the risk of colorectal cancer. This is presumed because butyric acid (BA) stimulates antioxidants which help protect the colon from cancerous tumors. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: In a cohort study, the risk ratio of developing diabetes was 0.86 when comparing consumers of tea (the exposed) to those who did not drink tea (the unexposed). Which one statement is correct (according to knowledge in 2020)?\n(A) The tea drinkers have lower risk of developing diabetes. (B) The tea drinkers have higher risk of developing diabetes. (C) Based on the information given we cannot tell if the observed difference in disease risk is the result of chance. (D) The risk ratio is close to the value one, so there is no difference in disease risk between the two groups.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on nutrition for help. The risk ratio is not sufficiently reduced that it could not be explained by random chance given the studies sample size. The answer is (C).", "philosophy": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about philosophy.\n\nQ: The study of reality in the broadest sense, an inquiry into the elemental nature of the universe and the things in it, is known as _____.\n(A) metaphysics (B) epistemology (C) quantum physics (D) axiology\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on philosophy for help. Among the options, only metaphysics studies the nature of reality and existence. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: According to Moore\u2019s \u201cideal utilitarianism,\u201d the right action is the one that brings about the greatest amount of:\n(A) pleasure. (B) happiness. (C) good. (D) virtue.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on philosophy for help. Moore's \"ideal utilitarianism\" states that one's actions should maximize intrinsic goods. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Before Tolstoy's Christian conversion, what was his perspective on the meaning of life?\n(A) optimist (B) satisfied (C) nominally religious (D) pessimist\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on philosophy for help. Before his conversion, Tolstoy feels that life was uncertain, which is a pessimist's point of view. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: According to d'Holbach, people always act according to _____.\n(A) free choices (B) dictates of the soul (C) necessary natural laws (D) undetermined will\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on philosophy for help. d'Holbach believes that people act according to necessary laws, and it proves nothing about people's free will. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Psychological egoism is:\n(A) an ethical theory about how we ought to behave. (B) a generalization concerning the way people tend to behave. (C) a claim about human nature and the ways people are capable of behaving. (D) none of the above.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on philosophy for help. Psychological egoism suggests that one behaves based on what makes one feels good, hence it is a claim about human nature and how humans are capable of behaving. The answer is (C).", "prehistory": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about prehistory.\n\nQ: What is the approximate mean cranial capacity of Homo erectus?\n(A) under 650 cc (B) about 800 cc (C) just under 1000 cc (D) 1200 cc\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on prehistory for help. The average cranium capacity of Homo erectus is less than 1000 cubic cm. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: According to Timothy Pauketat, the evidence for social stratification and political power at Cahokia suggests:\n(A) a center of Mississippian civilization with conditions similar to the rise of early states. (B) the limitations of authority in a Native American society of egalitarian foragers. (C) a simple chiefdom or perhaps a complex chiefdom had evolved by A.D. 1500. (D) a center of Mississippian civilization with conditions similar to societies on the Northwest Coast of North America.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on prehistory for help. Timothy Pauketat is known for his research on Cahokia, the center of the Mississippian culture, where he found similar conditions to the rise of early states. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Recent research on hominid species dating from the Middle Pliocene indicates there was (as of 2020):\n(A) a great amount of species diversity, or a single species that exhibited a lot of diversity. (B) very little species diversity during this period and very few hominids. (C) decreased species diversity due to a prolonged ice age followed by a severe drought. (D) decreased species diversity but increased numbers of hammerstones and flakes, indicating stone tool manufacture.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on prehistory for help. Recent research has recognized multiple hominid species from the Middle Pliocene, meaning that there is a great amount of species diversity or diversity in a single species. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Researchers now believe that the decline of the Maya was caused chiefly by:\n(A) a cataclysm of some kind, such as an earthquake, volcano, or tsunami. (B) ecological degradation resulting from slash-and-burn farming techniques. (C) endless wars between neighboring Mayan city-states. (D) practices of interbreeding that led to a steep rise in congenital disorders.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on prehistory for help. Researchers believe that the Maya collapse was mainly caused by over-exploitation of natural resources like the slash-and-burn farming techniques. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: The great Mayan king Pacal built temples in the city of Palenque in order to:\n(A) satisfy the powerful Mayan astronomer priests. (B) display his generosity to the common people, since they were allowed to live in the temples. (C) frighten away enemies, in particular the Spaniards. (D) legitimize his kingship, since his father was not royal.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on prehistory for help. Pacal built the temples as the funerary monument to legitimize his kingship. The answer is (D).", "professional_accounting": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about professional accounting.\n\nQ: An auditor traces the serial numbers on equipment to a nonissuer\u2019s subledger. Which of the following management assertions is supported by this test?\n(A) Valuation and allocation (B) Completeness (C) Rights and obligations (D) Presentation and disclosure\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on accounting for help. The completeness assertion is tested by tracing supporting documents to the record entries. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: One hundred years ago, your great-great-grandmother invested $100 at 5% yearly interest. What is the investment worth today?\n(A) $13,000 (B) $600 (C) $15,000 (D) $28,000\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on accounting for help. A $100 investment at 5% yearly interest is worth 100*(1.05)^100=13150 after 100 years, which is around $13,000. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: On January 1, year 1, Alpha Co. signed an annual maintenance agreement with a software provider for $15,000 and the maintenance period begins on March 1, year 1. Alpha also incurred $5,000 of costs on January 1, year 1, related to software modification requests that will increase the functionality of the software. Alpha depreciates and amortizes its computer and software assets over five years using the straight-line method. What amount is the total expense that Alpha should recognize related to the maintenance agreement and the software modifications for the year ended December 31, year 1?\n(A) $5,000 (B) $13,500 (C) $16,000 (D) $20,000\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on accounting for help. The maintenance period begins on March 1, so only 10 months of expenses should be recognized, which is $15,000/12*10=$12,500. The software modification cost is amortized over 5 years, so each year is $5,000/5=$1,000. So the total expense is $12,500+$1,000=$13,500. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Krete is an unmarried taxpayer with income exclusively from wages. By December 31, year 1, Krete's employer has withheld $16,000 in federal income taxes and Krete has made no estimated tax payments. On April 15, year 2, Krete timely filed for an extension request to file her individual tax return, and paid $300 of additional taxes. Krete's year 1 tax liability was $16,500 when she timely filed her return on April 30, year 2, and paid the remaining tax liability balance. What amount would be subject to the penalty for underpayment of estimated taxes?\n(A) $0 (B) $500 (C) $1,650 (D) $16,500\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on accounting for help. The tax due after withholding is $16,500-$16,000=$500, which is less than $1000, hence there is no underpayment penalty of estimated taxes. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Box a nongovernmental not-for-profit organization had the following transactions during the year: Proceeds from sale of investments $80000 Purchase of property plant and equipment $10000 Proceeds from long-term debt $100000 Loss on sale of investment $5000 What amount should be reported as net cash provided by financing activities in Box's statement of cash flows?\n(A) $70,000 (B) $75,000 (C) $80,000 (D) 100000\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on accounting for help. Among the four transactions, only Proceeds from long-term debt belongs to the financing activities section of cashflow, hence the amount reported should be $100000. The answer is (D).", "professional_law": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about professional law.\n\nQ: A son owed a creditor $5,000. The son's father contacted the creditor and told him that he wanted to pay the son's debt. The father signed a document that stated the father would pay the son's debt at a rate of $500 a month for 10 months. The creditor made no written or oral commitment to forbear to sue the son to collect the $5,000 debt, and the father made no oral or written request for any such forbearance. For the next five months, the father made and the creditor accepted the $500 monthly payments as agreed. During that period, the creditor, in fact, did forbear to take any legal action against the son. However, the father then informed the creditor that he would make no further payments on the debt. Which of the following is the most persuasive argument that the father is liable to the creditor under the terms of their agreement?\n(A) The father's promise and the creditor's reliance thereon, if proved, gave rise to a valid claim by the creditor against the father based on the doctrine of promissory estoppel. (B) Because it was foreseeable that the father's promise would induce the creditor to forbear taking any action against the son, such forbearance was, as a matter of law, a bargained-for consideration for the father's promise. (C) The father's five payments to the creditor totaling $2,500 manifested a serious intent on the father's part to be contractually bound, and such manifestation is generally recognized as an effective substitute for consideration. (D) By assuming the antecedent debt obligation that the son owed to the creditor, the father became a surety whose promise to the creditor was enforceable, since it was in writing and supported by adequate consideration. \nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on law for help. The doctrine of promissory estoppel stops a person from going back on a promise in contract law, hence option (A) should be the most persuasive argument. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: A state has recently enacted a statute prohibiting the disposal of any nuclear wastes within the state. This law does not contravene or conflict with any federal statutes. A man operates a company in the state that is engaged in the disposal of nuclear wastes. Subsequent to the passage of the state statute, the man, not yet aware of the new law, entered into contracts with many out-of-state firms to dispose of their nuclear wastes in the state. On account of this new law, however, the man will be unable to perform these contracts. Assume that the man has standing to challenge this state law. Which of the following presents his strongest constitutional grounds to challenge the state law prohibiting the disposal of nuclear wastes within the state?\n(A) The commerce clause. (B) The equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. (C) The privileges and immunities clause of Article IV, Section 2. (D) The contract clause.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on law for help. The commerce clause states that Congress shall have the power to regulate commerce with foreign Nations, and among the several States, and with the Indian Tribes. The statute affects inter-state commerce which puts it into question. Hence the man's strongest argument should be the commerce clause. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: On October 1, 1980, a developer, owner of several hundred acres in a rural county, drafted a general development plan for the area. The duly recorded plan imposed elaborate limitations and restrictions upon the land in the plan, which was to be developed as a residential district. The restrictions were to extend to all persons acquiring any of the lots and to their heirs, assigns, and lessees. It was further provided that all subsequent owners would be charged with due notice of the restrictions. Among those restrictions in the general plan were the following:(22) A franchise right is created in a strip of land 10 feet in width along the rear of each lot for the use of public utility companies with right of ingress and egress. (23) No house or structure of any kind shall be built on the aforementioned strip of land running through the said blocks. In 2000, a retiree purchased one of the lots, built a house, and erected a fence in the rear of his property within the restricted area. In 2004, a teacher purchased a lot adjacent to the retiree's property and built a new house. Two years later, a librarian purchased the lot that adjoined the teacher's property. The three deeds to those properties each contained references to the deed book where the general plan was recorded. In 2008, the librarian began the construction of a seven-foot post-and-rail fence along the line dividing his lot with the teacher's, and along the center of the area subject to the franchise right. Although the teacher objected to its construction, the fence was completed. If the teacher seeks a mandatory injunction to compel removal of the librarian's fence, the court will most likely\n(A) grant relief, because the fence was in violation of the easement restriction. (B) grant relief, because the encroachment of the fence violated the restriction in the original plan. (C) deny relief, because the teacher failed to enforce the restriction against the retiree. (D) deny relief, because the fence would not be construed as \"a structure\" within the terms of the restriction. \nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on law for help. The restrictions in the original plan say no house or structure of any kind shall be built on the aforementioned strip of land running through the said blocks. Hence the court will most likely grant relief because the fence violated the restriction in the original plan. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Judge took judicial notice of some facts at the beginning of the trial. Which of the following is not an appropriate kind of fact for judicial notice?\n(A) Indisputable facts. (B) Facts that have been asserted by individual political organizations. (C) Facts recognized to be true by common knowledge. (D) Facts capable of scientific verification.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on law for help. Among the options, facts that have been asserted by individual political organizations is not an appropriate kind of fact for judicial notice. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: A state legislature has recently enacted a statute making it a misdemeanor to curse or revile or use obscene or opprobrious language toward or in reference to a police officer perfonning his duties. A student at a state university organized a demonstration on campus to protest the war. The rally was attended by a group of 50 students who shouted anti-war messages at cars passing by. To show his contempt for the United States, the student sewed the American flag to the rear of his jeans. When a police officer saw the flag sown on the student's jeans, he approached and told him to remove the flag or he would be placed under arrest. The student became angered and shouted at the police officer, \"Listen, you bastard, I'll wear this rag anywhere I please. \" The student was subsequently placed under arrest and charged with violating the state statute. The student subsequently brings suit in state court challenging the constitutionality of the statute. The strongest constitutional argument for the student is that\n(A) the statute is void for vagueness under the Fourteenth Amendment's due process clause. (B) the statute is invalid because it violates the petitioner's freedom of speech under the First Amendment. (C) the statute is an abridgment of freedom of speech under the First Amendment because less restrictive means are available for achieving the same purpose. (D) the statute is overbroad and consequently invalid under the First and Fourteenth Amendments.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on law for help. The Fourteenth Amendment further supports the First Amendment by establishing a due process clause. Hence the strongest argument should be the statute is overbroad and consequently invalid under the First and Fourteenth Amendments. The answer is (D).", "professional_medicine": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about professional medicine.\n\nQ: A 22-year-old male marathon runner presents to the office with the complaint of right-sided rib pain when he runs long distances. Physical examination reveals normal heart and lung findings and an exhalation dysfunction at ribs\u00a04-5 on the right. Which of the following muscles or muscle groups will be most useful in correcting this dysfunction utilizing a direct method?\n(A) anterior scalene (B) latissimus dorsi (C) pectoralis minor (D) quadratus lumborum\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on medicine for help. Among the options, only pectoralis minor muscle origins from the outer surfaces of the 3rd to 5th ribs. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: A 36-year-old male presents to the office with a\u00a03-week\u00a0history of low back pain. He denies any recent trauma but says that he climbs in and out of his truck numerous times a day for his job. Examination of the patient in the prone position reveals a deep sacral sulcus on the left, a posterior inferior lateral angle on the right, and a lumbosacral junction that springs freely on compression. The most likely diagnosis is\n(A) left-on-left sacral torsion (B) left-on-right sacral torsion (C) right unilateral sacral flexion (D) right-on-right sacral torsion\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on medicine for help. The deep sulcus on the left, a posterior ILA on the right, with a negative spring test suggests a right-on-right sacral torsion. All other options have a deep sulcus on the right. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: A 44-year-old man comes to the office because of a 3-day history of sore throat, nonproductive cough, runny nose, and frontal headache. He says the headache is worse in the morning and ibuprofen does provide some relief. He has not had shortness of breath. Medical history is unremarkable. He takes no medications other than the ibuprofen for pain. Vital signs are temperature 37.4\u00b0C (99.4\u00b0F), pulse 88/min, respirations 18/min, and blood pressure 120/84 mm Hg. Examination of the nares shows erythematous mucous membranes. Examination of the throat shows erythema and follicular lymphoid hyperplasia on the posterior oropharynx. There is no palpable cervical adenopathy. Lungs are clear to auscultation. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?\n(A) Allergic rhinitis (B) Epstein-Barr virus (C) Mycoplasma pneumonia (D) Rhinovirus\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on medicine for help. The symptoms, especially the headache, suggest that the most likely cause is Rhinovirus. Epstein-Barr virus will cause swollen lymph nodes but there is no palpable cervical adenopathy. Lungs are clear to auscultation suggests it's not Mycoplasma pneumonia. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: A previously healthy 32-year-old woman comes to the physician 8 months after her husband was killed in a car crash. Since that time, she has had a decreased appetite and difficulty falling asleep. She states that she is often sad and cries frequently. She has been rechecking the door lock five times before leaving her house and has to count exactly five pieces of toilet paper before she uses it. She says that she has always been a perfectionist but these urges and rituals are new. Pharmacotherapy should be targeted to which of the following neurotransmitters?\n(A) Dopamine (B) Glutamate (C) Norepinephrine (D) Serotonin\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on medicine for help. The patient feels sad and among the options, only Dopamine and Serotonin can help increase positive emotions. Serotonin also affects digestion and metabolism, which can help the patient's decreased appetite and sleep difficulty. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: A 42-year-old man comes to the office for preoperative evaluation prior to undergoing adrenalectomy scheduled in 2 weeks. One month ago, he received care in the emergency department for pain over his right flank following a motor vehicle collision. At that time, blood pressure was 160/100 mm Hg and CT scan of the abdomen showed an incidental 10-cm left adrenal mass. Results of laboratory studies, including complete blood count, serum electrolyte concentrations, and liver function tests, were within the reference ranges. The patient otherwise had been healthy and had never been told that he had elevated blood pressure. He takes no medications. A follow-up visit in the office 2 weeks ago disclosed elevated urinary normetanephrine and metanephrine and plasma aldosterone concentrations. The patient was referred to a surgeon, who recommended the adrenalectomy. Today, vital signs are temperature 36.6\u00b0C (97.9\u00b0F), pulse 100/min, respirations 14/min, and blood pressure 170/95 mm Hg. Physical examination discloses no significant findings. Initial preoperative preparation should include treatment with which of the following?\n(A) Labetalol (B) A loading dose of potassium chloride (C) Nifedipine (D) Phenoxybenzamine\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on medicine for help. The symptoms and the adrenal mass suggested pheochromocytoma, and the blood pressure indicates hypertension. Phenoxybenzamine is used to treat hypertension caused by pheochromocytoma. The answer is (D).", "professional_psychology": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about professional psychology.\n\nQ: In the construction of a multiple regression equation for purposes of prediction, the optimal combination of measures is one in which the predictors\n(A) are uncorrelated with each other but are moderately correlated with the criterion (B) have low correlations with each other and low correlations with the criterion (C) are highly intercorrelated with each other and moderately correlated with the criterion (D) have low correlations with the criterion bur are moderately correlated with each other\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on psychology for help. The basis of multiple regression is to assess the relationship between one continuous variable and a set of independent variables. So the predictors should be uncorrelated with each other but are moderately correlated with the criterion. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: There are three ways to measure the Central Tendency: the Mean, the Median and the Mode. From your knowledge about them, what is the mode?\n(A) less sensitive to extreme scores than the mean (B) more useful for skewed distributions (C) sensitive to extreme values and highly skewed distributions (D) the most frequently occurring number\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on psychology for help. The definition of mode is the most frequently occurring number. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: Carl Jung believed that a client's transference:\n(A) is a fantasy that distracts the client from reality. (B) represents \u201cmixed feelings\u201d toward the therapist. (C) \"is a form of \"\"acting out.\"\"\" (D) reflects the client\u2019s personal and collective unconscious.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on psychology for help. Transference is a phenomenon that a person's feelings are unconsciously redirected, so it reflects the client's personal and collective unconscious. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: In terms of Hofstede\u2019s (1980) five cultural dimensions, the United States scores at the top of the scale on:\n(A) individualism. (B) individualism and power distance. (C) power distance and masculinity. (D) uncertainty avoidance.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on psychology for help. US scores highest on individualism among the five cultural dimensions. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: One of your therapy clients asks your advice about a good weight- reduction program. You have investigated the programs in the community and are enrolled in the one you consider the best. This program offers a $50 bonus to its patrons for each new person they bring into the program. Under these circumstances, your most appropriate response would be to\n(A) tell your client the pros and cons of each program you know about except for the one in which you are enrolled (B) recommend to your client the program in which you are enrolled and explain the $50 bonus you will receive (C) recommend to your client the program in which you are enrolled and offer to have the $50 bonus credited to your client's account in the program (D) tell your client the pros and cons of each program you know about, but do not claim the $50 bonus if your client enrolls in your program\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on psychology for help. Based on the circumstances, you should tell your client about the pros and cons of each program, but it would be inappropriate to receive the bonus, so you should not claim the $50 bonus. The answer is (D).", "public_relations": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about public relations.\n\nQ: Earth Hour was a campaign launched by which organization?\n(A) Greenpeace (B) The UN (C) Oxfam (D) World Wildlife Fund\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on public relations for help. Earth Hour is a worldwide movement oragnized launched by the World Wildlife Fund. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: In issues management, what is the most proactive approach to addressing negative or misleading information posted online about your organization?\n(A) Buy domain names that could be used by opposition groups. (B) Post anonymous comments on blogs to combat this information. (C) Prepare a news release that discredits the inaccurate information. (D) Make policy changes to address complaints highlighted on these sites.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on public relations for help. In issues management, the most proactive approach to addressing negative or misleading information posted online is to make policy changes to address complaints highlighted on those sites. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: At which stage in the planning process would a situation analysis be carried out?\n(A) Defining the program (B) Planning the program (C) Taking action and implementing ideas (D) Evaluation of the program\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on public relations for help. Situation analyses are typically carried out during the planning process stage of defining the program. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Which of these statements is true of the Vatican in 2010 at the time of the accusations of child abuse cover-ups?\n(A) There was a coordinated media response. (B) Consistent messages were communicated. (C) Criticisms were taken as attacks on the Catholic Church. (D) The credibility of the Vatican was upheld.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on public relations for help. In 2010 when there were accusations of child abuse cover-ups, the Vatican took those criticisms as attacks on the Catholic Church. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: What should a public relations media practitioner do if she does not know the answer to a reporter's question?\n(A) Give the reporter other information she is certain is correct. (B) Say that the information is 'off the record' and will be disseminated later. (C) Say 'I don't know' and promise to provide the information later. (D) Say 'no comment,' rather than appear uninformed.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on public relations for help. If a public relations media practitioner does not know the answer to a reporter's question, they should say 'I don't know' and offer to provide the information later. The answer is (C).", "security_studies": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about security studies.\n\nQ: What are the frameworks of analysis within which terrorism has been considered (as of 2020)?\n(A) Competition between larger nations has resulted in some countries actively supporting terrorist groups to undermine the strength of rival states. Terrorist networks are extended patronage clubs maintained and paid for by their donor states and are conceptualised as being like state actors, to be dealt with using military force. (B) Globalization has enabled the internationalization of terrorist activities by opening up their operational space, although coordination is still managed from a geographical base. This suggests that terrorist groups are nationally structured which means that terrorism cannot be considered in terms of a war to be defeated militarily without having serious implications on the indigenous population. (C) Terrorism can be viewed as a problem to be resolved by military means (war on terrorism), by normal police techniques (terrorism as crime), or as a medical problem with underlying causes and symptoms (terrorism as disease). (D) Terrorism is viewed as a criminal problem. The criminalization of terrorism has two important implications. Firstly, it suggests that terrorism can be eradicated - terrorists can be caught and brought to trial by normal judicial proceedings thereby removing the threat from society - and secondly, it suggests that preventative crime techniques are applicable to prevent its development.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on security studies for help. (A) is wrong because it is not competition between larger nations that causes terrorism. \n(B) is wrong because globalization is not the cause of terrorism.\n(C) is correct because the US undertook the war on terrorism. \n(D) is wrong because preventative crime techniques will likely not end terrorism. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Which of the following is the best lens through which to investigate the role of child soldiers?\n(A) Child soldiers are victims of combat that need re-education and rehabilitation. (B) Children and their mothers are not active subjects in warfare and are best considered as subjects in the private sphere. (C) Children are most often innocent bystanders in war and are best used as signifiers of peace. (D) Children have political subjecthood that is missed when they are considered as passive victims of warfare.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on security studies for help. Child soliders as a political topic can be missed when they are considered passive victims of warfare. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: How can we best describe the relationship between the state-centric approach and the concept of human security?\n(A) There are such wide divisions within the human security framework regarding the nature of threats and referent objects that no widely applicable comparisons between state-centric approaches and human security can be drawn. (B) By adopting the framework of human security, the limitations of the realist state-centric approach become evident. Whilst human security defines the referent object as the person or population, state-centric approaches prioritise the security of the state, de-prioritizing the pursuit of human security. (C) The state-centric approach to security is a faction of human security, usually defined within the broad school of human security. By being state-centric this approach prioritises the individual as the referent object in security studies. (D) Both the state-centric and human-centric approaches to security are mutually exclusive and offer a sufficient analytic framework with which to understand the international security system. It is therefore the role of security analysts to determine which of these substantial concepts is correct, and which should be discarded.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on security studies for help. Human security focuses on a person or population whereas state-centric approaches focus on the state while deprioritizing human security. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: In order to become securitized, a threat must be presented in which of these ways?\n(A) As an existential threat that requires immediate and extraordinary action, posing a threat to the survival of the state or to societal security. (B) As requiring immediate and extraordinary action by the state, threatening the survival of a referent object and therefore warranting the use of measures not normally employed in the political realm. (C) As an urgent threat to the survival of the referent object, so serious that it legitimises the employment of extraordinary action in response. (D) As an urgent threat to the survival of the audience that requires extraordinary or emergency measures.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on security studies for help. To be securitized, a threat must be an urgent threat to the survival of the referent object. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: What distinguishes coercive diplomacy from military force?\n(A) Compellence is another term for coercive diplomacy, but covering a narrower set of criteria; compellence covers those threats aimed at initiating adversary action. A threat to coerce a state to give up part of its territory would count as coercive diplomacy, as long as that threat proactively initiates action before reactive diplomacy is taken. (B) Coercive diplomacy constitutes the threats of limited force to induce adversary's incentive to comply with the coercer's demands. It is an influence strategy that is intended to obtain compliance: the use of force to defeat an opponent first does not count. It leaves an element of choice with the target to comply, or to continue. (C) Military force, or the threat of military force, utilises fear to achieve strategic objectives. Coercive diplomacy is differentiated from this approach, because it does not use fear as a tool for coercing an adversary. (D) Coercive diplomacy is employed to use force but to limit its effects on the international community. Coercive diplomacy is an aggressive strategy that is intended to obtain compliance through defeat. It does not leave an element of choice with the target, the target either being forced to comply or engage in conflict. It seeks to control by imposing compliance by removing any opportunity for negotiation or concession.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on security studies for help. Coercive diplomacy uses the threat of force to induce the opponent to comply with demands. The answer is (B).", "sociology": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about sociology.\n\nQ: Which of the following is not a problem associated with official statistics on strike action?\n(A) most strikes go unnoticed by employers and the mass media (B) not all industrial disputes will be reported by the employer (C) the definition of strikes excludes those that involve fewer than ten workers or last less than one day (D) it is hard to compare strikes that were measured in different ways\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on sociology for help. Official statistics on strike action can be problematic because not all industrial disputes will be reported by employers, the definition of strikes excludes those that involves fewer than ten workers or last less than one day, and it is hard to compare strikes that were measured in different ways. Thus, (A) is not a problem associated with official statistics on strike action. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: What does Berger (1963) describe as a metaphor for social reality?\n(A) a fairground ride (B) a circus (C) a puppet theatre (D) a ballet\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on sociology for help. Berger describes social reality using the metaphor of a puppet theatre. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: The term 'hegemony' refers to:\n(A) the tendency for the working class not to realize their own interests (B) a dominant ideology that legitimates economic, political and cultural power (C) a form of dual consciousness based on ideology and everyday experiences (D) a mode of payment given for outstanding topiary\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on sociology for help. Hegemony refers to a dominant ideology that legitimates economic, policital, and cultural power. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: The shift from 'civil religion' to 'common religion' means that:\n(A) the increasing bureaucracy of the state has made religion only a marginal part of our lives (B) despite the weakening of traditional authority, our everyday lives and 'common sense' remain shaped by religious beliefs and values (C) religious participation in collective worship may have declined, but people still practise their faiths in private (D) people are much more likely to discuss their religious beliefs in public, informal settings\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on sociology for help. The shift from civil religion to common religion means that despite the weakening of traditional authority, our everyday lives and common sense remain shaped by religious beliefs and values. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Which of the following did the post-war welfare state of 1948 not aim to provide:\n(A) free health care and education for all (B) a minimum wage (C) full employment (D) universal welfare\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on sociology for help. The post-war welfare state of 1948 aimed to provide free healthcare and education, full employment, and universal welfare. But it did not aim to provide a minimum wage. The answer is (B).", "us_foreign_policy": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about us foreign policy.\n\nQ: How did Donald Trump attack globalization in the 2016 campaign?\n(A) Globalization had made men like him too rich (B) Globalization only benefited certain American states, such as New York (C) Liberal elites had encouraged globalization, while 'ordinary Americans' lost jobs because of it (D) Globalization encouraged damaging trade wars\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on us foreign policy for help. Trump attacked globalization because he believed ordinary Americans lost jobs due to it, and so he wanted to blame liberals who had encouraged it. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: How did NSC-68 change U.S. strategy?\n(A) It globalized containment. (B) It militarized containment. (C) It called for the development of the hydrogen bomb. (D) All of the above\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on us foreign policy for help. NSC-68 outlined a variety of courses of action, including globalization of containment, militarization of contaiment, and the development of the hydrogen bomb. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: How do Defensive Realism and Offensive Realism differ in their explanation of state behaviour?\n(A) Defensive realists place greater emphasis on the role of international institutions (B) Defensive realists place less emphasis on geographical factors (C) Offensive realists give more priority to the national interest than Defensive realists. (D) Defensive realists believe states are security maximizers, while Offensive realists believe states to be power maximizers\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on us foreign policy for help. While defensive realism advocates that states are security maximizers, offensive realists think of states as power maximizers. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: The realm of policy decisions concerned primarily with relations between the United States and the rest of the world is known as\n(A) terrorism policy. (B) economic policy. (C) foreign policy. (D) international policy.\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on us foreign policy for help. The topic of policy decisions concerns with relations between the US and the rest of the world is known as foreign policy. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: How did the 2008 financial crisis affect America's international reputation?\n(A) It damaged support for the US model of political economy and capitalism (B) It created anger at the United States for exaggerating the crisis (C) It increased support for American global leadership under President Obama (D) It reduced global use of the US dollar\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on us foreign policy for help. The 2008 financial crisis damanged the international reputation of the American model of political economy and capitalism. The answer is (A).", "virology": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about virology.\n\nQ: The median survival time to AIDS and death was established by following:\n(A) Seroprevalent HIV-infected individuals (B) Seronegatives (C) Seroconverters (D) High-risk seronegatives\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on virology for help. The median survival time to AIDS and death was established as a result of the development of seroconverters. The answer is (C).\n\nQ: Which of the following is a morphological characteristic of the paramyxoviruses.\n(A) Fragile viruses often visualised with RNA spewing from the inside (B) Elongate viruses (C) Icosahedral viruses with envelope (D) Very large viruses\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on virology for help. Paramyxoviruses are fragile viruses often visualised with RNA spewing from the inside. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: The most important goal of a behavioral intervention is:\n(A) Change in behavior (B) Comprehensive coverage (C) Effective use of behavioral theory (D) Sustained behavior change\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on virology for help. The prim goal of a behavioral intervention is to cause sustained behavior change. The answer is (D).\n\nQ: A key factor facilitating the application of nested case-control studies from the MACS was:\n(A) Data collection (B) Establishment of a repository of biologic specimens (C) Participant interest (D) Administration of the questionnaire by staff\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on virology for help. The Multicenter AIDS Cohort Study's use of nested case-control studies was facilitated by the establishment of a repository of biologic specimens. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: Why are parvoviruses a highly impactful parasite?\n(A) Because they have no nucleic acid (B) They require a helper virus (C) Only replicate in dividing cells (D) Can integrate into host chromosomes\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on virology for help. Paroviruses are highly impactful because they do not have nucleic acid. The answer is (A).", "world_religions": "The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about world religions.\n\nQ: How can the Upanishads be characterized?\n(A) Ritual texts (B) Philosophical texts (C) Hymns (D) Origin stories\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on world religions for help. The Upanishads are the most recent part of Vedas (the oldest scriptures in Hinduism) and supplied the basis of later Hindu philosophy. So they are philosophical texts. The answer is (B).\n\nQ: What is the Second Gem in Buddhism?\n(A) The Dharma (B) The Sangha (C) The Buddha (D) The Bodhisattva\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on world religions for help. The Second Gem in Buddhism is The Dharma. The answer is (A).\n\nQ: Which Japanese government promoted a kind of national cult based on the emperor and his associations with kami?\n(A) Honen (B) Tanaka (C) Tokugawa (D) Meiji\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on world religions for help. The promotion of a national cult based on the emperor and his associations with Kami happened during the reign of Emperor Meiji (1852-1912). The answer is (D).\n\nQ: In which dynasty was the \"Mandate of Heaven\" developed to legitimatize the new rulers?\n(A) Shang (B) Zhou (C) Han (D) Xia\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on world religions for help. The \"Mandate of Heaven\" was developed as an ancient Chinese philosophical concept during the Zhou Dynasty (1046-256 BCE). The answer is (B).\n\nQ: What is the sign of the covenant for Jewish males?\n(A) The rainbow (B) Circumcision (C) A son (D) Bar mitzvah\nA: Let's think step by step. We refer to Wikipedia articles on world religions for help. In Judaism, the most distinctive sign of the covenant is circumcision (brit milah). The answer is (B)."}